Originally Posted by Steve Petersen
If the Quran advocated abrogation of previous scripture, why is there a pork taboo in Islam?
I suspect that Islam picked up the abrogation argument from the Christian world, who applied it to the OT. Marcion's canon did not include the OT (and several books of the NT also BTW.)
Hi Steve, thanks for your post
I think the pork taboo in Islam would be viewed as one of the things that continued from one era to the next...similar to the view that many Christians have about the Ten Commandments that 9 continued, but Sabbath dropped (along with many of the other particular laws in Torah).
Of course, this view is by no means universal among Christians.
But really, what
does Christ's "not a jot or tittle" mean? Sometimes I hear Paul's analogy of marriage brought in...not that the law passed away, but we passed away relative to it when we were burried with Christ in baptism. Of course, the pracitcal application is still the same--whether we view the law as "passed away" or we are "passed away" relative to it, the end result is that we are not held accountable for following it.
Even in the Tanakh there were "changes" in the Law, though I'm not sure if we should consider them substantive. For example, Torah speaks only of the Tabernacle, nothing of the temple...and when David suggests building the temple, he is initially rebuffed in God's response that he never asked for one. Nevertheless, the Temple came and replaced the Tabernacle. However, as I say, this may not be a real material change as the same services that took place in the Tabernacle now took place in the Temple.
I look forward to more discussion.
Peace,
Daniel
EDIT: Also, if one views Ezekiel's temple vision as something to be literally fulfilled in a future date, the services there seem to be not identical to Temple worship as it was historically practiced. Again, were these differences substantive? And even if they weren't, would
any changes be considered ok?