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  #1  
Old 25th June 2008, 02:43 PM
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Gay theology (i.e. Mel White, Soulforce) why even try?

Gay theologians posit that the Bible affirms same-gender sex acts can be engaged in by Christians.

By what authority and by what scriptural support do they do this?

It is broken down by them to this: The Bible is silent on condemning "homosexuality," and it is claimed by gay theology the Bible has some supporting evidence approving same-gender sexual behavior.

Gay theologians present only a few examples of or for this position.

The first is argument from silence.

Sodom (sodomy) was about inhospitality or pagan religion worship, which included same-gender sex acts for adherants as a matter of worship. If a person avoids pagan religion he/she are free to engage in same-gender sexual unions. (Genesis 18, 19, Ezekiel 16)

Ruth and Naomi, a mother in law and daughter in law are presented by gay theology as having had a lesbian relationship. Ruth, went on to marry a man named Boaz. They had a son named Obed. (Book of Ruth)

Next is David and Jonathan whose close friendship is said to include a homosexual encounter. (1 Samuel 18, 2 Samuel 1)

The last is a situation where a Roman Soldier ownes a slave boy (pais) and is said to have a sexual relationship with this slave. This slave had become sick and Jesus was asked by this Roman commander to heal the boy, and since Jesus healed the slave-boy, this is a gay affirming situation. (Matthew 8, Luke 7)

All of these incidents can be easily explained as NOT affirming same-gender sex (as being apporpriate behavior for believers, as in the case of the Roman and the Sodomites) and can in the case of Naomi and Ruth and David and Jonathan can be explained as common and exceptional love between people with no sexual aspect at all.

There are many places in scripture that shows sexual immorality is to be avoided and/or given up and repented of by believers. And there is the definition of marriage being man/woman as an immutable structure (for believers) designed as such by God the Father. (Matthew 19, Mark 10)

Why then does gay theology even exist?

Why try?
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  #2  
Old 25th June 2008, 02:59 PM
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Because there are gay people (believe it or not) that believe in G-d. They also know that G-d made them the way they are, and, since G-d supposedly makes no mistakes, they know that they are loved by G-d just as you are. As for the Bible, people like yourself consistently use it to condemn gay people, even though those passages are highly debatable, as well. You accuse gay people of using 'gay theology', but when you use the Bible to condemn any of G-d's children, you are using "anti-gay theology" - Not to mention, you come across quite a bit as speaking for G-d, which I find highly arrogant. Why don't you leave the judging to G-d, and leave the non-heterosexual people alone to live their lives, and love who they love?
  #3  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:10 PM
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Originally Posted by Polycarp_fan View Post
Gay theologians posit that the Bible affirms same-gender sex acts can be engaged in by Christians.

By what authority and by what scriptural support do they do this?

It is broken down by them to this: The Bible is silent on condemning "homosexuality," and it is claimed by gay theology the Bible has some supporting evidence approving same-gender sexual behavior.

Gay theologians present only a few examples of or for this position.

The first is argument from silence.

Sodom (sodomy) was about inhospitality or pagan religion worship, which included same-gender sex acts for adherants as a matter of worship. If a person avoids pagan religion he/she are free to engage in same-gender sexual unions. (Genesis 18, 19, Ezekiel 16)

Ruth and Naomi, a mother in law and daughter in law are presented by gay theology as having had a lesbian relationship. Ruth, went on to marry a man named Boaz. They had a son named Obed. (Book of Ruth)

Next is David and Jonathan whose close friendship is said to include a homosexual encounter. (1 Samuel 18, 2 Samuel 1)

The last is a situation where a Roman Soldier ownes a slave boy (pais) and is said to have a sexual relationship with this slave. This slave had become sick and Jesus was asked by this Roman commander to heal the boy, and since Jesus healed the slave-boy, this is a gay affirming situation. (Matthew 8, Luke 7)

All of these incidents can be easily explained as NOT affirming same-gender sex (as being apporpriate behavior for believers, as in the case of the Roman and the Sodomites) and can in the case of Naomi and Ruth and David and Jonathan can be explained as common and exceptional love between people with no sexual aspect at all.

There are many places in scripture that shows sexual immorality is to be avoided and/or given up and repented of by believers. And there is the definition of marriage being man/woman as an immutable structure (for believers) designed as such by God the Father. (Matthew 19, Mark 10)

Why then does gay theology even exist?

Why try?
So the homosexual pastor might keep his job or find another "SYMPATHETIC" audience to pay him his salary. It's as simple as that.
  #4  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:11 PM
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Originally Posted by FlamingFemme View Post
Because there are gay people (believe it or not) that believe in G-d. They also know that G-d made them the way they are, and, since G-d supposedly makes no mistakes, they know that they are loved by G-d just as you are. As for the Bible, people like yourself consistently use it to condemn gay people, even though those passages are highly debatable, as well. You accuse gay people of using 'gay theology', but when you use the Bible to condemn any of G-d's children, you are using "anti-gay theology" - Not to mention, you come across quite a bit as speaking for G-d, which I find highly arrogant. Why don't you leave the judging to G-d, and leave the non-heterosexual people alone to live their lives, and love who they love?
GOD also made Lucifer and later called him a liar when he perverted.

Last edited by LittleNipper; 25th June 2008 at 03:20 PM.
  #5  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:36 PM
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Originally Posted by LittleNipper View Post
GOD also made Lucifer and later called him a liar when he perverted.
Pedophilia, bestiality, necrophilia, and now Satan himself? Why do you feel the need to compare homosexual people with horrible crimes, and, now, the Devil? Why, in your opinion, are homosexuals so EVIL?
  #6  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:50 PM
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Originally Posted by FlamingFemme View Post
Pedophilia, bestiality, necrophilia, and now Satan himself? Why do you feel the need to compare homosexual people with horrible crimes, and, now, the Devil? Why, in your opinion, are homosexuals so EVIL?
Evil is evil. If you break one commandment have not you broken them all? Why do you try so hard to make homosexuals out to be good? Only GOD is good.

Last edited by LittleNipper; 25th June 2008 at 03:58 PM.
  #7  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:55 PM
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Originally Posted by LittleNipper View Post
Evil is evil. If you break one commandment have not you broken them all. Why do you try so hard to make homosexuals out to be good. Only GOD is good.
Everyone has broken commandments - not just homosexuals.
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  #8  
Old 25th June 2008, 03:58 PM
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Originally Posted by Polycarp_fan View Post
Gay theologians posit that the Bible affirms same-gender sex acts can be engaged in by Christians.

By what authority and by what scriptural support do they do this?

It is broken down by them to this: The Bible is silent on condemning "homosexuality," and it is claimed by gay theology the Bible has some supporting evidence approving same-gender sexual behavior.

Gay theologians present only a few examples of or for this position.

The first is argument from silence.

Sodom (sodomy) was about inhospitality or pagan religion worship, which included same-gender sex acts for adherants as a matter of worship. If a person avoids pagan religion he/she are free to engage in same-gender sexual unions. (Genesis 18, 19, Ezekiel 16)

Ruth and Naomi, a mother in law and daughter in law are presented by gay theology as having had a lesbian relationship. Ruth, went on to marry a man named Boaz. They had a son named Obed. (Book of Ruth)

Next is David and Jonathan whose close friendship is said to include a homosexual encounter. (1 Samuel 18, 2 Samuel 1)

The last is a situation where a Roman Soldier ownes a slave boy (pais) and is said to have a sexual relationship with this slave. This slave had become sick and Jesus was asked by this Roman commander to heal the boy, and since Jesus healed the slave-boy, this is a gay affirming situation. (Matthew 8, Luke 7)

All of these incidents can be easily explained as NOT affirming same-gender sex (as being apporpriate behavior for believers, as in the case of the Roman and the Sodomites) and can in the case of Naomi and Ruth and David and Jonathan can be explained as common and exceptional love between people with no sexual aspect at all.

There are many places in scripture that shows sexual immorality is to be avoided and/or given up and repented of by believers. And there is the definition of marriage being man/woman as an immutable structure (for believers) designed as such by God the Father. (Matthew 19, Mark 10)

Why then does gay theology even exist?

Why try?
I'll give it a 4/10. It has a good beat and I can dance to it, but the lyrics make no sense.
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  #9  
Old 25th June 2008, 04:02 PM
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Originally Posted by LittleNipper View Post
Evil is evil. If you break one commandment have not you broken them all? Why do you try so hard to make homosexuals out to be good? Only GOD is good.
LIke Cantata said, everyone has broken commandments - And you even just said: "only G-D is good". So, once again, why do you insist on portraying homosexuals as being more evil than any other group of people?
  #10  
Old 25th June 2008, 04:05 PM
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Originally Posted by cantata View Post
Everyone has broken commandments - not just homosexuals.
Very true. And homosexualism is a sin. Yet some seem intent to say it is not.
 

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