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Origins Theology Forum for the discussion of Creation Science (Young/Old) vs Theistic Evolution. Discussion of Atheistic Evolution should be taken to the Discussion and Debate forums.

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  #91  
Old 15th March 2008, 01:29 PM
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Originally Posted by vossler View Post
So you're saying that God isn't omniscient and has limited control. Please back up that theory with some Scripture please.
So here you're saying that God needed to learn and gain experience being God. Again, please back this with Scripture.
For me it's as clear as mud. If this is essential to understand God and His Word then the answers should easily be derived from Scripture itself, right? I have yet to see them.

I think so too.

If God needed to "learn", it seems he had learned even before Adam. I don't think learn is the right word, unless it is more like "see", which is neutral in terms of sophistication or understanding. Learn can have that kind of meaning. An outcome is not unexpected, but when you see it, your learn of it.

Rev 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.

Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times [the things] that are not [yet] done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:


I don't think clearsky is going to provide major disagreement on your point. Lets see.
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  #92  
Old 15th March 2008, 01:39 PM
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Originally Posted by ClearSky View Post
First, God gave us a free will. That means no one can predict our actions, not even God. He could not foresee Adam's decision, otherwise the whole test with the tree in Eden would not have made any sense.
I do not agree with God changing character or needing to learn by experience. (Sounds vaguely Mormon to me.)

But I do agree with this. Genuinely free choices cannot be detected before they are made, not even by omniscience.

Just as God could not know that Adam would disobey, neither could he know that Jesus would obey. Jesus also had the free choice that Adam did.

So, God takes risks.

btw--that doesn't mean God is less than omniscient either. Nor does it mean that God is unable ultimately to accomplish his will to the fullest.
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  #93  
Old 15th March 2008, 08:42 PM
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Originally Posted by gluadys View Post
But I do agree with this. Genuinely free choices cannot be detected before they are made, not even by omniscience.

Just as God could not know that Adam would disobey, neither could he know that Jesus would obey. Jesus also had the free choice that Adam did.

So, God takes risks.

btw--that doesn't mean God is less than omniscient either. Nor does it mean that God is unable ultimately to accomplish his will to the fullest.
This thread has drifted pretty far from its original topic, but I’m interested in discussing your opinion about this.

If God is omniscient, how do you think it’s possible for him to not know the future? You’re probably aware that according to both of Einstein’s Relativity theories, the distinction between space and time, or between past and present, isn’t something fixed like the distinction between North and South—it’s more like the distinction between left and right, changing depending on what reference frame one uses. There isn’t any event in the history of the universe that couldn’t be considered to be part of the past, present, or future, depending on one’s reference frame. And this isn’t just some kind of illusion; these distinctions themselves are relative, and the only reason this can’t be observed as readily as the relativity of left and right is because on Earth these effects are too minor to be measured without using precise equipment. Astronauts are the only people for whom it’s significant enough to be noticeable on ordinary clocks.

From the moment that the universe was created, there would have been reference frames from which Adam’s disobedience had already happened, or was happening currently. If God knew everything there was to know about what was happening in the universe at what people on Earth would have considered the present, it would not have been possible for this not to include the future also. If God created the universe, that means also creating the universe’s entire history, since space and time are just two different ways of looking at the same medium.

I think the Bible also implies that time isn’t any limitation to God’s knowledge. It contains lots of prophecies that were made about events that would occur hundreds of years in the future, including some about what Jesus would do. If God’s omniscience didn’t extend to predicting things like Jesus’s obedience, how do you think he was able to prophecy it?
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  #94  
Old 16th March 2008, 12:22 AM
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Originally Posted by ClearSky View Post
Once you understand that, you'll see Scripture in a totally new way. All the apparent errors and contradictions of Scripture are suddenly resolved. There is no conflict anymore between Scripture and morality, history, and science.
The apparent errors and contradictions of Scripture are just as they appear - simple errors. It is understandable that a book by hundreds of authors of different knowledge and education has lots of errors and contradictions. Your assumption of a cruel God is just based on such errors. Look at the following example:

1 Sam 15:2 Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt. Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling

Ok, God commands the genocide of the Amalekites. Their crime was that they defended their territory against the Israelites 200 years earlier. With a strong Israelitic army established under King Saul in 1000 AC, God now saw his opportunity for revenge. That seems to support the idea of a cruel God. But look how the story continues:

1 Sam 15:7 And Saul smote the Amalekites from Havilah until thou comest to Shur, that is over against Egypt. And he took Agag the king of the Amalekites alive, and utterly destroyed all the people with the edge of the sword

Saul obeys God and kills the whole tribe with one exception. To God's dismay, he spares the life of their king Agag. God is enraged and removes his grace from Saul. Agag, the last Amalekite, is eventually murdered by the prophet Samuel. Genocide successfully finished.

But suddenly, 5 years later:

1 Sam 30:1 And it came to pass, when David and his men were come to Ziklag on the third day, that the Amalekites had invaded the south, and Ziklag, and smitten Ziklag, and burned it with fire

The killed Amalekites are very alive and kicking, and probably mighty pỉssed about their neighbor's God's genocide attempts! So you see that the genocide story in 1 Samuel is completely made up. God never gave that command, the Amalekites were never murdered, and the Bible itself confirms this just a few pages later.

When you look at all stories how God killed this family and extinguished that tribe, they'll turn out to be mostly made up by some Bible authors who thought that those stories would contribute to God's glory.

This is a good example how too-literal interpretation of the bible leads to the assumption of a cruel, murderous God and consequently, a God whose character needs to change in order to adapt to the improving human morale standard. But stories of made-up victories and genocides were quite normal in that time, you can also find them in Egypt, Assyrian and Babylonic history. You need to read all stories in their historic context. Wrong literal Bible interpretation can insult God by giving him a Hitler-like character, and can do great damage to Christianity.

Last edited by Paul365; 16th March 2008 at 01:57 AM.
  #95  
Old 16th March 2008, 05:14 PM
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Don’t any of the theistic evolutionists here have anything to say about the Relativity topic? Gluadys or Mallon? Both of you seemed to agree with the essay in my OP about how we need to listen to what science can teach us about God’s actions, even if that means having to interpret the Bible in a different way from how you would otherwise. But this principle applies to more than just creationism and evolution.

It’s really strange the way so many theistic evolutionists agree with this idea when it comes to evolution, but on the topic of predestination they’d still rather ignore what science has to say. I think I might find this mindset even more confusing than creationism. For creationists, their interpretation of the Bible is the highest authority that exists, so it’s not difficult to understand why they ignore any physical evidence that contradicts it. But if you agree that one should be willing to change one’s interpretation of the Bible based on physical data, why apply that principle to some areas but not others?
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  #96  
Old 16th March 2008, 06:43 PM
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Originally Posted by Aggie View Post
Don’t any of the theistic evolutionists here have anything to say about the Relativity topic? Gluadys or Mallon? Both of you seemed to agree with the essay in my OP about how we need to listen to what science can teach us about God’s actions, even if that means having to interpret the Bible in a different way from how you would otherwise. But this principle applies to more than just creationism and evolution.

It’s really strange the way so many theistic evolutionists agree with this idea when it comes to evolution, but on the topic of predestination they’d still rather ignore what science has to say. I think I might find this mindset even more confusing than creationism. For creationists, their interpretation of the Bible is the highest authority that exists, so it’s not difficult to understand why they ignore any physical evidence that contradicts it. But if you agree that one should be willing to change one’s interpretation of the Bible based on physical data, why apply that principle to some areas but not others?
Give me time, Aggie. Just saw the last post now.

Originally Posted by Aggie View Post
If God is omniscient, how do you think it’s possible for him to not know the future? You’re probably aware that according to both of Einstein’s Relativity theories, the distinction between space and time, or between past and present, isn’t something fixed like the distinction between North and South—it’s more like the distinction between left and right, changing depending on what reference frame one uses. There isn’t any event in the history of the universe that couldn’t be considered to be part of the past, present, or future, depending on one’s reference frame. And this isn’t just some kind of illusion; these distinctions themselves are relative, and the only reason this can’t be observed as readily as the relativity of left and right is because on Earth these effects are too minor to be measured without using precise equipment. Astronauts are the only people for whom it’s significant enough to be noticeable on ordinary clocks.

From the moment that the universe was created, there would have been reference frames from which Adam’s disobedience had already happened, or was happening currently. If God knew everything there was to know about what was happening in the universe at what people on Earth would have considered the present, it would not have been possible for this not to include the future also. If God created the universe, that means also creating the universe’s entire history, since space and time are just two different ways of looking at the same medium.

I think the Bible also implies that time isn’t any limitation to God’s knowledge.
I agree with everything you say up to here. So why do I also say that God cannot see a genuinely free choice ahead of time?

Because I believe in an open future---a future which has many possible future histories. Call them parallel worlds if you like.

The universe does not have a single future. What God can foresee is all possible futures. But in granting us free will, God has delegated to us the power to determine which future will be actualized.

So, yes, God always foresaw the universe in which Adam was choosing or had already chosen to disobey. But he also saw the potential universe in which Adam did not disobey. What God could not know, until Adam made his choice, is which of these potential universes would be actualized.

Compare this, if you like, to sub-atomic particles which some physicists have described as "waves of probability". We know many paths the particle can take. We even know which are the most and least probable. But until the wave collapses we don't know which it did take.

It contains lots of prophecies that were made about events that would occur hundreds of years in the future, including some about what Jesus would do. If God’s omniscience didn’t extend to predicting things like Jesus’s obedience, how do you think he was able to prophecy it?
As far as I can see, prophecy is always identified with the 20-20 vision of hindsight as well as a large dollop of allegorical interpretation and that makes its predictive accuracy highly questionable.

On some Jewish sites, you can find a long list of Messianic prophecies which Jesus has not fulfilled.
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  #97  
Old 16th March 2008, 08:59 PM
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Originally Posted by gluadys View Post
Because I believe in an open future---a future which has many possible future histories. Call them parallel worlds if you like.

The universe does not have a single future. What God can foresee is all possible futures. But in granting us free will, God has delegated to us the power to determine which future will be actualized.

So, yes, God always foresaw the universe in which Adam was choosing or had already chosen to disobey. But he also saw the potential universe in which Adam did not disobey. What God could not know, until Adam made his choice, is which of these potential universes would be actualized.

Compare this, if you like, to sub-atomic particles which some physicists have described as "waves of probability". We know many paths the particle can take. We even know which are the most and least probable. But until the wave collapses we don't know which it did take.
There are a couple things you should realize about this. The first is that even for quantum events whose outcome is inherently random, according to Relativity their outcome still always already exists from certain points of view. The collapse of a wave function with random results is just another event that occurs at a certain point in space and time, whose position “before” or “after” any other event depends on one’s frame of reference. Even though the outcome of these events can’t be predicted on the basis of any other events which caused them, that doesn’t affect the flexible nature of when they occur relative to other events.

There is a hypothesis about these events producing multiple possible universes, but it’s different from the idea you’re describing here. The idea is that rather than a wave function collapsing into one of its possible outcomes when it’s measured, the wave function never collapses at all—the person making the measurement simply becomes part of the wave function, existing simultaneously in multiple states, although in each of the possible universes this person would only be aware of the one outcome which exists in that universe. In other words, if this hypothesis is true there is no particular future that gets “actualized”. All possible futures would exist simultaneously, and we just happen to inhabit the one where things turned out the way they did.

I don’t think this is what you’re imagining when you say there are multiple possible universes resulting from “free will”, since it would mean that Adam both sinned and didn’t sin, and it’s just a matter of chance that we exist in the universe where he did. But this is the only way multiple possible universes can exist under General Relativity. Unless space-time itself splits into multiple universes, all of which exist simultaneously, the future cannot be considered any less determined than the past because there’s no objective distinction between the two.
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Old 16th March 2008, 10:29 PM
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Originally Posted by Aggie View Post
There are a couple things you should realize about this. The first is that even for quantum events whose outcome is inherently random, according to Relativity their outcome still always already exists from certain points of view. The collapse of a wave function with random results is just another event that occurs at a certain point in space and time, whose position “before” or “after” any other event depends on one’s frame of reference. Even though the outcome of these events can’t be predicted on the basis of any other events which caused them, that doesn’t affect the flexible nature of when they occur relative to other events.

There is a hypothesis about these events producing multiple possible universes, but it’s different from the idea you’re describing here. The idea is that rather than a wave function collapsing into one of its possible outcomes when it’s measured, the wave function never collapses at all—the person making the measurement simply becomes part of the wave function, existing simultaneously in multiple states, although in each of the possible universes this person would only be aware of the one outcome which exists in that universe. In other words, if this hypothesis is true there is no particular future that gets “actualized”. All possible futures would exist simultaneously, and we just happen to inhabit the one where things turned out the way they did.

I don’t think this is what you’re imagining when you say there are multiple possible universes resulting from “free will”, since it would mean that Adam both sinned and didn’t sin, and it’s just a matter of chance that we exist in the universe where he did. But this is the only way multiple possible universes can exist under General Relativity. Unless space-time itself splits into multiple universes, all of which exist simultaneously, the future cannot be considered any less determined than the past because there’s no objective distinction between the two.
I guess one of the questions this raises is the knotty one of physico-spiritual connectivity.

The brain, like all physical organs, works on the basis of molecular activity. And without brain activity, we do not think and have no conscious awareness.

Does it follow that the firing of neurons tells us what we think? Is it the physical structure of the brain that makes choices for us?

Or is causation in the other direction? Do our thoughts direct the brain processes?

Is there some room for a two-way interaction?

What you are suggesting is that the determinism of the physical order is a characteristic of the whole created order.

Now, foreknowledge is one thing. Predetermination is another. In the first case God can, in some sense, see what we call the future. But that, in and of itself doesn't make the future be.

But if the future is as determined as the past, then God doesn't just see the future. God determined what the future would be. He doesn't even need to see it to know it, because he has already decided what it is.

Now if reality were ONLY physical, only material, and therefore wholly governed by processes understandable (in principle) through scientific method, I would agree with you.

So I think the answer to the conundrum has to lie with a reality of the spiritual order that is beyond the understanding of science.

Of course, this requires some sort of connectivity between a spiritual and a material order. And that takes us back to the brain-consciousness question. Is thinking a purely materialistic brain-directed activity, or is there something more to awareness than this?

I believe that in some sense, God gave his creation the capacity to self-direct its future. In humans this capacity appears as free will, the capacity to make conscious choices. If the future is not, in some sense, open to ongoing creativity, there is no point in creation to begin with.

Stephen J. Gould often said that if you rewound the tape of evolution and started again with only primitive bacteria, you would get a totally different phylogenic tree. I think he was right. But that would only be possible without strict determinism.
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Old 17th March 2008, 05:07 AM
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As you’ve probably noticed from some of my posts in the Creation/Evolution section, I don’t trust most of Gould’s conclusions, since in the realm of biology there are examples of him misquoting people’s work (including his own) in order to support the conclusions he wants to be true based on his political ideals. I trust Gould’s conclusions about physics even less, because physics isn’t even something he’s studied.

Anyway, I was wondering whether I ought to bring up the physical functioning of our brains in this context, since I have a fair amount to say about that also. The New York Times had an interesting article about this around a year ago: http://www.nytimes.com/2007/01/02/science/02free.html. To summarize the article, “free will” is a perception that people have, but it only exists as a mental experience. The article describes a few experiments in which people claimed to be the ones causing their actions even when it clearly isn’t possible:

In the 1970s, Benjamin Libet, a physiologist at the University of California, San Francisco, wired up the brains of volunteers to an electroencephalogram and told the volunteers to make random motions, like pressing a button or flicking a finger, while he noted the time on a clock.

Dr. Libet found that brain signals associated with these actions occurred half a second before the subject was conscious of deciding to make them.

The order of brain activities seemed to be perception of motion, and then decision, rather than the other way around.

In short, the conscious brain was only playing catch-up to what the unconscious brain was already doing. The decision to act was an illusion, the monkey making up a story about what the tiger had already done.

Dr. Libet’s results have been reproduced again and again over the years, along with other experiments that suggest that people can be easily fooled when it comes to assuming ownership of their actions. Patients with tics or certain diseases, like chorea, cannot say whether their movements are voluntary or involuntary, Dr. Hallett said.

In some experiments, subjects have been tricked into believing they are responding to stimuli they couldn’t have seen in time to respond to, or into taking credit or blame for things they couldn’t have done. Take, for example, the “voodoo experiment” by Dan Wegner, a psychologist at Harvard, and Emily Pronin of Princeton. In the experiment, two people are invited to play witch doctor.

One person, the subject, puts a curse on the other by sticking pins into a doll. The second person, however, is in on the experiment, and by prior arrangement with the doctors, acts either obnoxious, so that the pin-sticker dislikes him, or nice.

After a while, the ostensible victim complains of a headache. In cases in which he or she was unlikable, the subject tended to claim responsibility for causing the headache, an example of the “magical thinking” that makes baseball fans put on their rally caps.
Another similar thing I’ve read about is something that was observed in patients who were conscious during brain surgery. It was possible for the doctors to make the patient move his body in a certain way by stimulating areas of his or her brain, which is obviously an action chosen by the doctor rather than the patient. But whenever this happened, the patient always said it was he or she who chose to move their body in this particular way, because the decision was the product of the same physical interactions in his or her brain that produced all of his or her actions. In that case, at least, there’s no question that “free will” was a complete illusion.

You also don’t seem to really be addressing what I said about Relativity. The reason we can know that the future is determined isn’t because our actions are the results of purely physical processes; it’s just something about the nature of time itself. Even if our actions were somehow the results of things in the spiritual world that aren’t bound by the laws of causality, our actions themselves still exist at certain points in space and time just like any other event, which means they have all already existed from the moment the universe was created. What causes our actions doesn’t have any effect on this.

Christianity Today published a letter about this in July of 2001. This letter is from my father, but I was the one who suggested that he write it, and helped him decide what to say in it:

Originally Posted by Michael Kane
The debate between Christopher Hall and John Sanders over openness theology ["Does God Know Your Next Move?" May 21] properly focuses on Scripture, but as a scientist, I am troubled that some of Sanders's statements are incompatible with modern science.

He says that God's knowledge of the future is not really limited because "the 'future' does not yet exist so there is nothing 'there' to be known. … God knows all that can be known, and to say that it is a limitation for God not to know 'nothing' is ridiculous."

The actual existence of past, present, and future is required by Einstein's theory of relativity. All space and time form a four-dimensional continuum that simply exists; the theory does not permit time to be treated as a dimension in which the future is open or incomplete. The theory of relativity has measurable consequences and has been validated by rigorous experimental tests. It is only with great trepidation that one should abandon it.

From a Christian point of view, it is reasonable to conclude that the temporal and the spatial extent of our universe were created together, and thus the entire four-dimensional structure resides before its Creator in an eternal present. Thus our modern scientific understanding of the nature of time fits quite well with the Christian tradition that God has knowledge of all time, past, present, and future: "Before Abraham was, I am."
Can you please address what I’m saying about why even apart from what our actions are caused by, Relativity doesn’t allow the universe to be “open to ongoing creativity”?
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Old 17th March 2008, 07:35 AM
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Originally Posted by Aggie View Post
Can you please address what I’m saying about why even apart from what our actions are caused by, Relativity doesn’t allow the universe to be “open to ongoing creativity”?
Let me address this because I've studied this stuff in astrophysics.

It is correct that our universe can be described as a space-time continuum. That however does not mean that it's possible to arbitrarily move from one time event to another. General Relativity limits the possible paths in the space-time continuum. The limitations depends on the metric of the universe. This is why we have a preferred time direction in our universe, and the future is not determined from a position in the past. Paths that allow a look in the future from the past, and would cause the collapse of the wave function of a future event, are just not possible in our universe.

Of course, there are other universes possible that allow information to travel from the future into the past, and thus the future is determined, all wave functions are collapsed and time travel is theoretically possible. Goedel has described such a universe. But in ours there's an event horizon between future and past that's impenetrable for cause->effect relations.

So, in short, it can not be deducted form General Relativity that the future is determined and free will is impossible.
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