Jesus Christ, was he sent for all mankind?

Thanks, Rut, for quoting. It saved me from looking up other passages.

Mat 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

It is really ironic that while you demand that people read the verse in proper context, you would not hesitate to change that rule when you think it would suit your agenda.

Matt 24 like Mark 13 and Luke 21 was talking about the signs of the time when the Temple will be destroyed:

1 Jesus left the temple and was walking away when his disciples came up to him to call his attention to its buildings. 2 "Do you see all these things?" he asked. "I tell you the truth, not one stone here will be left on another; every one will be thrown down." 3 As Jesus was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately. "Tell us," they said, "when will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?" (Matthew 24)

The audience was the disciples and Jesus mentioned all the signs that were to come, including the preaching of the gospels in all the world for a witness unto all nations

1. As the Temple was destroyed in @70 AD, should we then say that the preaching of the gospels should have stopped by then?

2. When the Temple was destroyed, we all jolly well know that the gospels was NEVER preached at places like China, Russia and Japan, ampng others. How then will this imply taht the gosples will be preached for all nations in all the world?

3. The audience was the disciples and Jesus told the disciples to preach to "all nations" in the "world" (incl outside Judah) where they can find the lost tribes of Israel in those land.

4. The context of the 'nation' in Matthew and in the other books of the gospels is consistent with the land where you can find the Israelites. The instruction to the disciples were clear: Do not preach to the gentiles.

Paul has his own agenda and wanted to preach the gospels to the gentiles. In fact, Paul had differences with the other disciples in passing the message of Christ to the gentiles.

Why then would some of the disciples arguw with Pail over the preaching to the gentiles, if as you say, the message from Jesus is clear that they should extend it to the gentiles?

It is really ironic that while you demand that people read the verse in proper context, you would not hesitate to change that rule when you think it would suit your agenda.

Matt 24 like Mark 13 and Luke 21 was talking about the signs of the time when the Temple will be destroyed:

1 Jesus left the temple and was walking away when his disciples came up to him to call his attention to its buildings. 2 "Do you see all these things?" he asked. "I tell you the truth, not one stone here will be left on another; every one will be thrown down." 3 As Jesus was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately. "Tell us," they said, "when will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?" (Matthew 24)

The audience was the disciples and Jesus mentioned all the signs that were to come, including the preaching of the gospels in all the world for a witness unto all nations

1. As the Temple was destroyed in @70 AD, should we then say that the preaching of the gospels should have stopped by then?

2. When the Temple was destroyed, we all jolly well know that the gospels was NEVER preached at places like China, Russia and Japan, ampng others. How then will this imply taht the gosples will be preached for all nations in all the world?

3. The audience was the disciples and Jesus told the disciples to preach to "all nations" in the "world" (incl outside Judah) where they can find the lost tribes of Israel in those land.

4. The context of the 'nation' in Matthew and in the other books of the gospels is consistent with the land where you can find the Israelites. The instruction to the disciples were clear: Do not preach to the gentiles.

Paul has his own agenda and wanted to preach the gospels to the gentiles. In fact, Paul had differences with the other disciples in passing the message of Christ to the gentiles.

Why then would some of the disciples arguw with Pail over the preaching to the gentiles, if as you say, the message from Jesus is clear that they should extend it to the gentiles?

I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.

4Every Sabbath he reasoned in the synagogue, trying to persuade Jews and Greeks. 5When Silas and Timothy came from Macedonia, Paul devoted himself exclusively to preaching, testifying to the Jews that Jesus was the Christ.[a] 6But when the Jews opposed Paul and became abusive, he shook out his clothes in protest and said to them, "Your blood be on your own heads! I am clear of my responsibility. From now on I will go to the Gentiles."

It is really ironic that while you demand that people read the verse in proper context, you would not hesitate to change that rule when you think it would suit your agenda.

Matt 24 like Mark 13 and Luke 21 was talking about the signs of the time when the Temple will be destroyed:

1 Jesus left the temple and was walking away when his disciples came up to him to call his attention to its buildings. 2 "Do you see all these things?" he asked. "I tell you the truth, not one stone here will be left on another; every one will be thrown down." 3 As Jesus was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately. "Tell us," they said, "when will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?" (Matthew 24)

The audience was the disciples and Jesus mentioned all the signs that were to come, including the preaching of the gospels in all the world for a witness unto all nations

1. As the Temple was destroyed in @70 AD, should we then say that the preaching of the gospels should have stopped by then?

2. When the Temple was destroyed, we all jolly well know that the gospels was NEVER preached at places like China, Russia and Japan, ampng others. How then will this imply taht the gosples will be preached for all nations in all the world?

3. The audience was the disciples and Jesus told the disciples to preach to "all nations" in the "world" (incl outside Judah) where they can find the lost tribes of Israel in those land.

4. The context of the 'nation' in Matthew and in the other books of the gospels is consistent with the land where you can find the Israelites. The instruction to the disciples were clear: Do not preach to the gentiles.

Paul has his own agenda and wanted to preach the gospels to the gentiles. In fact, Paul had differences with the other disciples in passing the message of Christ to the gentiles.

Why then would some of the disciples arguw with Pail over the preaching to the gentiles, if as you say, the message from Jesus is clear that they should extend it to the gentiles?

Salaam

You forget to read about the other signs what going to happen in the end of age.That should be people against people

7 Nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom. There will be famines and earthquakes in various places. 8 All these are the beginning of birth pains.
9"Then you will be handed over to be persecuted and put to death, and you will be hated by all nations because of me. 10 At that time many will turn away from the faith and will betray and hate each other, 11 and many false prophets will appear and deceive many people. 12 Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, 13 but he who stands firm to the end will be saved. 14 And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come.

Yes the temple was destoyed in 70 AD but these signs haven`t come yet that year So these signs must first come and so can the end of age come

The disiples asked 3 questions

1.when will this happen

2.what will be the sign of your coming

3.of the end of the age

So they asked a deep questions

2. If you see what the greek word is for coming it`s parousia That means
1) presence
2) the coming, arrival, advent
a) the future visible return from heaven of Jesus, to raise the dead, hold the last judgment, and set up formally and gloriously the kingdom of God

So we must wait for that so we have time to preach for all the nation as China, Russia etc

The context of the passage is clear. See Post #41 on why I said Matt 24 like Mark 13 and Luke 21 was talking about the signs of the time when the Temple will be destroyed.

Denying the above only questioned your honesty and the outright misuse of the gospel.

If we take that the signs were referring to the destruction of the Second Temple in 70 AD, the gospel that was preached to 'all nations' (Matt 24:14) can only mean that the true message of Christ were meant for the lost sheep of Israel in the land inside and outside Canaan. For the gospel has never reached China, India and Russia, among others, before 70 AD.