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  #1  
Old 27th June 2003, 10:03 PM
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Jews and 1 John 2:22-23

1 John 2:22-23 says:

Who is the liar? It is the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a man is the anti-Christ -- he denies the Father and the Son. No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.

Does this somehow exclude the Jews? I don't see how it could. God usually says what he means and means what he says. How can a Christian be pro-Semetic in light of this verse? I'm not trying to incite anti-Semetism or anything. I just want to know if I'm missing something here. Thanks.
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  #2  
Old 30th June 2003, 01:17 AM
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I don't think that verse is speaking specifically of non-Christian Jews.

It is true that outside of Jesus, no one can get to the Father.

I don't think this means that we shouldn't love non-believers and pray for their salvation.

I just looked up the verses, and after thinking about them in context (verses 18-27), I don't think God (through John) was talking about non-believers in general. It seems he was talking about "Christians" who were claiming that Jesus wasn't the Son of God, or about people who were actively going around trying to deceive people with falsehoods. It seems he was reminding people to stick to and trust the truth that the Holy Spirit had taught them.

So Christians can and should be very pro-Semetic, and we should love all who are not yet saved. The Jews are still God's people
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Old 30th June 2003, 01:58 AM
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I didn't think that it was meant in that way. I know that God's covenant with Abraham is unconditional and irreversible.
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Old 30th June 2003, 04:33 AM
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Well it couldn't be anti-Semetic because Jesus was a Jew....
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Old 30th June 2003, 09:49 AM
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so what if he was a Jew, Jesus Believed didn't he? if other Jews believed in what he said, they would become christians. It doesn't sound anti semetic per se (since Jews are a race, not just a religion) but can be equally applied to anyone who doesn't believe.
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Old 30th June 2003, 09:45 PM
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Originally Posted by jwsiii
1 John 2:22-23 says:

Who is the liar? It is the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a man is the anti-Christ -- he denies the Father and the Son. No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.

Does this somehow exclude the Jews? I don't see how it could. God usually says what he means and means what he says. How can a Christian be pro-Semetic in light of this verse? I'm not trying to incite anti-Semetism or anything. I just want to know if I'm missing something here. Thanks.
OF COURSE this is applicable to both jews and gentiles. THIS IN FACT REFERS TO JEWS since they rejected Christ first. No body other than Jews rejected Christ in the NT because the message of christ had not been given to any group. JOHN WAS WRITING IN THE TIMES OF the jews rejection and denial of Christ and was not applying it to
The first anti christs were jews not Romans, egyptians or palestinians etc

I mean who were the Pharisees, Sadducees and scribes? These were the major JEWISH rejectors of Jesus and these were the people being referred to since they were the only rejectors of the message given to jews themselves AT THAT TIME. of course today, ANYONE WHO DENIES JESUS IS PART of the antichrist and that includes jews and gentiles.


The jews are mere human beings and God does not favor any body over the other when it comes to faith and non faith. Jesus is God and without Jesus , God will not give anyone eternal life.
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Old 30th June 2003, 09:51 PM
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Originally Posted by jwsiii
I didn't think that it was meant in that way. I know that God's covenant with Abraham is unconditional and irreversible.

That is a lie. God has killed many Israelites and taken their land away for disbelief, idolatry and blasphemy. God's covenant is conditional on Israel obeying him--READ THE 1ST commandment.

The first commandment is very clear. Israelites must always obey God else they will be punished by God severely for they are under His commandment.

God used the Egyptians to enslave and even kill some hebrews. Exodus

God used the Assyrians to kill Israelites. 2 Kings etc

God used babylonians to kill Israelites and take away their land

God used the Romans to kill israelites and disposess and scatter them

God never gives human anything unconditionally, that is irrational and fairly impossible since humans must be given conditions for everything from God. Humans cannot be given land and blessings unconditionally by God.
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