The Islamic idea of 'consent' in marriage.

first of all motalban dont acuss me of deceit because you have fail to know where to look and didnt understand what is written.

even though i gave you proof from the quran but you dont want it, you want scientific proof and where in the quran does it explain that a woman is able to decide when she reaches puberty. if you want scientific proof which explains the details, there's non that i know, such as why is pork forbidin in islam, there is no verse in islam that says why. but now the scientific researches proofed that pigs are one of the most flithy animals on the planet and is not suitable for human food because it has many kings of harmful worms in it.

same goes for what you are saying,there is no verse that explains it scientificlly, but now adays science have proofed that children when reached puberty there bodies are ready and able to bare children and there mentallity is mature enough to raise them well and to make mature decisions.

So, you're now saying it's not at newadvent?

and i dont know why you aren willing to understand about the sites???

i brought you one passage fron newadvent and another from cin.org, i didnt bring one then changed about where it is, please understand what iam telling you, i have given you two, in each site there is one.

thanks Bevlina i will try to keep on topic

Letstalk, it is clear that you're totally unwilling to address this post in an honest way - you misquoted the newadvent site, leaving out the warning where they themselves don't recognise the source as relliable. Your continual failure to do this means that I will ignore your posts on this thread.

Unless you wish to address this issue, there is no point continuing on with attempts to distract from the OP. What you hoped to gain by such an editing, one can but guess.

At least you've now admitted that all the evidence you have about the Koranic idea of consent comes only from the Koran.

I tried to engage you on this too, asking you if Islam allows women the right to vote, or to drive at such an early age. One can only guess as to why you'd ignore that.

The Islamic idea of 'consent' allows children to be exploited.

Rather than admit his deception, letstalk's moved on. tsk.

The Islamic idea of 'consent' allows children to be exploited.

i dont know what made you think this, especially all of the cases of children molestation and exploitment are far more in christian countries than any other in the world??????

acutually i dont think you have ever been to a muslim country huh ????????

all women have the right to vote and to drive cars, not because one country doest permit that, so all muslim women cant vote or drive in other countries.

It's part of Islam. It's not deemed exploitation in Islam, because you make up something about 'consent'.

Thanks for the answer, to a the question I didn't ask.

I would pray that you are honest enough to address your deception in misquoting the NewAdvent site.

I tried to engage you on this too, asking you if Islam allows women the right to vote, or to drive at such an early age. One can only guess as to why you'd ignore that.

Thanks for the answer, to a the question I didn't ask.

there is the question and i answered.
i think things got a little confusing for you???

I would pray that you are honest enough to address your deception in misquoting the NewAdvent site

still sticking to that huh????
everyone can look at the link if they want.
they can judge for them selves.

many posts of yours have been misleading and you have been posting your ideas about islam which were wrong without any proof?????? that is deception old timer.

LOL. I asked you about if girls as soon as they are deemed 'adult' are allowed to drive. You simply replied that women are allowed to drive in Islamic nations. One does not necessarily correlate with the other. I understand that English may not be your first language. But we're dealing also with logic.

Let me make it more simpler.

If in Islam the idea of ‘consent’ was not just sexual, a girl, no matter when she reached puberty, would also be permitted to vote, to drive etc AT THE SAME TIME as she’s deemed marriageable – if you really believe that she’s capable of consent in an adult manner.

For instance, in Iran, it’s fixed at 15 years of age.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voting_age

Thus even in Islamic nations there’s almost a recognition about the farce of declaring someone to be ‘of age to consent’.

Note the site links to a more extensive survey at
http://de.kraetzae.de/wahlrecht/international/
(which is in German)

And, indeed they do. Dishonesty matters not to you.
Even here you can’t help yourself. Hence I continue to pray for you. If you had actual examples, you’d have presented them, but making a general, and thus weak attack as yours again undermines your credibility – not that you seem to care... but then again offering no evidence for your case doesn't bother you either

In summary.

Moslems deem a 'girl' a 'woman' for the purposes of marriage, claiming that she's capable to consent like an adult woman.

This allows men to marry very young girls and believe that she's a willing partner.

Not only is there no evidence put forward by Moslems that such a person is capable of consenting, Moslem men seem to recognise that it's only for sex, because in Islamic countries this same 'adult woman' is not permitted to vote, or to drive!

Thus the true nature of the Islamic idea of consent is apparent

So having shown that this 'fact' of yours is not quite a response to the question I asked, I ask again, that if Muslims truly believe that a girl can 'consent' in an adult manner the moment she reaches puberty, then why can't they also be allowed to vote, and to drive?