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  #1  
Unread 27th May 2005, 11:08 AM
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Was King James I gay?

I'm just curious because I've heard this before. Would there be any sources from the time period that I could see in order to affirm or deny this?
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  #2  
Unread 27th May 2005, 11:12 AM
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I know you're looking for sources, and I can't remember the source I got this from, but I understand the original source of that was from a close acquaintance of King James that was not friendly to him. And the "news" was "released" after James' death. I will try to find the source I got that from.
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Unread 29th May 2005, 12:50 AM
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It is pretty widely accepted by historians that he was, and it was widely known by his contemporaries as well. He had open relationships (kissing, petting, etc) with other men(Bothwell, Somerset, Buckingham) When Elizabeth died, the joke was:
Rex fuit Elizabeth, nunc est regina Jacobus (Elizabeth was King, now James is the Queen)

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Unread 30th May 2005, 10:56 PM
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Originally Posted by constance
It is pretty widely accepted by historians that he was, and it was widely known by his contemporaries as well. He had open relationships (kissing, petting, etc) with other men(Bothwell, Somerset, Buckingham) When Elizabeth died, the joke was:
Rex fuit Elizabeth, nunc est regina Jacobus (Elizabeth was King, now James is the Queen)
What does King James I have to do with the King James Bible? King James I was not one of the translators, he was not one of the scholars, and he certainly has nothing to do with the authorship of the Bible. King James I was merely the King of England during the time when the Protestant clergy announced their desire for a new translation in 1604.

-bit
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Unread 30th May 2005, 11:42 PM
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Does the fact that he was gay have anything to do with the validity of the Bible or any translation thereof? Absolutely not.

Did James I have anything to do with the Bible which carries his name? Absolutely. He proposed that a new translation be commissioned to settle the controversies of earlier English translations, he made the decision that the translators were to add no marginalia, that they were to remain faithful to the Bishops' Bible whenever possible, and that they were to uphold the Established Church (Church of England)at all times...and the Crown of England still retains copyright in Great Britain through a perpetual patent letter.

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Unread 3rd June 2005, 12:09 AM
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I was reading a book about Mary, Queen of Scots, which was James I 's mother. His father was definitely gay.
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Unread 5th June 2005, 04:09 AM
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Soon every famous person in history would be gay. Check out this news where a stupid blasphemer claims that Jesus was a woman http://worldnetdaily.com/news/articl...TICLE_ID=44563

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Unread 9th June 2005, 11:51 AM
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That is the most absurd thing I have ever heard in my entire life! That trumps the rumour of Jesus being married to Mary Magdalene by far.
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Unread 9th June 2005, 03:33 PM
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Originally Posted by BlackSaab52
I'm just curious because I've heard this before. Would there be any sources from the time period that I could see in order to affirm or deny this?
There are records of him being very "close" with a number of important men in his court, so I would say that he was probably at least bisexual.

Originally Posted by bitwise
What does King James I have to do with the King James Bible?
He authorized that the translation be made, but I do not believe much else.

King James I was not one of the translators, he was not one of the scholars, and he certainly has nothing to do with the authorship of the Bible.
So it seems.

King James I was merely the King of England during the time when the Protestant clergy announced their desire for a new translation in 1604.
Problem here: if (and it is a very big if) you are going to call us Anglicans "Protestants," then you have this wrong. The Seperatists wanted a new translation to be like the Geneva (more "Reformed"). The current official AV of the Anglican Church, the Bishop's Bible, wasn't nearly as well received (yes, the title of AV was used twice before the KJV ever appeared, and it was used for later translations, including the RV, which was the AV immediately after the KJV). So King James I, the good Anglican he was, agreed with the Seperatists and gave them a new translation. The problem was that the new translation was just as liturgical and Catholic as the Bishop's Bible except with better scholarship and better sounding. The Seperatists were, well, "not happy" let's say.
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For You are the Lord Most High, of great compassion, long-suffering, and very merciful, and You relent at human suffering. O Lord, according to Your great goodness You have promised repentance and forgiveness to those who have sinned against You, and in the multitude of Your mercies You have appointed repentance for sinners so that they may be saved.

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  #10  
Unread 14th June 2005, 03:04 AM
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Originally Posted by bitwise
What does King James I have to do with the King James Bible? King James I was not one of the translators, he was not one of the scholars, and he certainly has nothing to do with the authorship of the Bible. King James I was merely the King of England during the time when the Protestant clergy announced their desire for a new translation in 1604.

-bit
I highly reccommend that you read God's Secretaries: The Making of the King James Bible by Adam Nicolson, which is available at Amazon.

Originally Posted by danbarnaba
Soon every famous person in history would be gay. Check out this news where a stupid blasphemer claims that Jesus was a woman http://worldnetdaily.com/news/articl...TICLE_ID=44563
Judith Christ of Nazareth??? ROFLOL that is so absurd as to not be taken seriously!

Diane
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