Why The Trinity is a False Teaching - Summarized Doctrinal Reasons

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nomadictheist

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No he doesn't. Verse 10 “And” is the start of a new argument, verse 13 “but” is the contrast.
Two things. The Greek word "kai" is not understood as starting a new argument about a different thing. If anything, it joins a second argument to one already made concerning the same manner.

Second, the Greek word "de" is not always understood as a strong contrasting word, like our English "but." It is, in fact, the same word used in the genealogies in the New Testament "Abraham begat Isaac, and [de] Isaac begat Jacob, and [de]..." When it is used in a negative contrasting sense, it is not at the beginning of the sentence.

Therefore, this argument does not hold up under scrutiny, as the Greek words used and their usage within the text specifically support continuity of thought, not contrast of thought.

What does a donkey have to do with the earth, a thing?
You said that God could only fully express Himself through a man, which is the only sense (according to you) that Jesus is in any way more "Logos" than the earth. But if God can make a donkey speak, he could express Himself in any way he chooses. Is it not written "If they remain silent, the rocks will cry out?"

10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:

First verse 10 says nothing about the Son. And it's not speaking of the Son, but the Father. He is contrasting Jesus to the angels, and him becoming better then the angels. How can he show that he has become better then the angels, if he is already better then the angles.

In verses 10-12 he talks about the works of God, and the old way will pass away, then his point in verse 13 is, that Jesus sat down at the right hand of God, until the old way has passed away. Why would he be saying, Jesus is going to sit down on the right hand of himself? Jesus was set over the works of Gods hands. You have made him a little lower than the angels; You have crowned him with glory and honor, And set him over the works of Your hands.
As has already been shown from the Greek, your interpretation of this passage is completely warped. The Greek text and usage supports continuity of argument, not change and contrast.

Furthermore, the arguments are each supporting statements of the author's introduction of the book:
"but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. 3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4 having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.

Undoubtedly you can see how the arguments relate to and affirm this introduction, in which the author of Hebrews declares that God created the the world through His Son.

Of course that is what he meant. Yes, but Jesus speaking in this way, is speaking in dark sayings, and parables. It's like the word of God is referred to as seed, or Jesus is the bread. We are use to this kind of lingo.
Not every word Jesus said is a "dark saying." John didn't seem to think that Jesus' statement here was a dark saying, but that it was straightforward. He was literally talking about them destroying a temple and Him raising it again in 3 days. They were just confused about which temple He was talking about.

So, I take it you don't have a verse.
Other than Jesus' own words? No. Don't need more than that.
 
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mike van wyk

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The teaching of the trinity skews the understanding of certain basic truths, and they are the following,

Jesus Christ, birthed in the beginning of creation, which is why he is called a "son", by the Father, whose identity is I AM, as the Father does not have a name, as he is not created as we are to have name, and was said to be "engendered" today, which was day one of creation.

Do you think you can give me Bible reference for your statement?
 
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Strong in Him

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No, in fact, I left the Methodists and joined the Orthodox owing to the fruits of my own studies.

The problem is, your position is unscriptural. It is contrary to the book of Job and indeed contrary to the very words of our Lord; the Gospels describe our Lord being tempted by a personal, personified devil.

The Christian devil is not a coequal or semiequal force akin to the Zoroastrian Angra Mainyu. Rather, the devil is the accuser, the adversary, a fallen angel, restricted in power, that exists that our faith may be tested and purified in the fire.

"Like" - except that you left the Methodist church, :(.
(Actually probably very sensible.)
 
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7xlightray

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Two things. The Greek word "kai" is not understood as starting a new argument about a different thing. If anything, it joins a second argument to one already made concerning the same manner.

Second, the Greek word "de" is not always understood as a strong contrasting word, like our English "but." It is, in fact, the same word used in the genealogies in the New Testament "Abraham begat Isaac, and [de] Isaac begat Jacob, and [de]..." When it is used in a negative contrasting sense, it is not at the beginning of the sentence.

Therefore, this argument does not hold up under scrutiny, as the Greek words used and their usage within the text specifically support continuity of thought, not contrast of thought.

What does all this have to do with the argument that the writer of Hebrews is making?
And, your also making up an argument, that I'm simply not making.
I'm talking about how “and,” and “but” are used here in Hebrews.

You said that God could only fully express Himself through a man, which is the only sense (according to you) that Jesus is in any way more "Logos" than the earth. But if God can make a donkey speak, he could express Himself in any way he chooses. Is it not written "If they remain silent, the rocks will cry out?"

I'm talking about the order of things, how God made the earth rocks, they don't fully express Him, whether He can make them talk, or not, has nothing to do with anything, I'm talking about how He made them to be. How many times have you heard of the earth speaking, or gardening, or spending time with it's friends?

Animals are living, made as man was made. Do you see rocks singing out? Rocks do not fully express God. I don't want to get sidetracked into one of these debates again, surely, you must know what my point was. This was my comment: “It's not the same, for one, the earth is an object, and are not a full image of God. God does not put His mind, His character, the expression of Himself, the image of Himself in the earth, but in a man He can.” Then you said: “So you're saying an all powerful God is confined to expressing all of His divine attributes only in a man?” Then I said “No, not saying that. What God is like is seen in His creation, but cannot express as a man can.” I am saying, as God has made the earth, it does not fully express God. Your trying to turn it into something I obviously was not saying, if you follow, and keep it in the context of all that I was saying, for I said “No, not saying that.” Then you turn it around and argue that's what I was saying.

Clearly, Man, and rocks do not express God in the same way, God made man with a different purpose, and man was to rule over, and man was to be in the image of God, not rocks in the image of God!

As has already been shown from the Greek, your interpretation of this passage is completely warped. The Greek text and usage supports continuity of argument, not change and contrast.

Furthermore, the arguments are each supporting statements of the author's introduction of the book:
"but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. 3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4 having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.

Undoubtedly you can see how the arguments relate to and affirm this introduction, in which the author of Hebrews declares that God created the the world through His Son.

Hebrews 1
5 For [gar] unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee?
And [kia] again [palin], I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
6 And/but [de] again [palin], when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
7 And [kia] of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
8 But [de] unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
10 And [kia], Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
11 They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
12 And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.
13 But [de] to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation?

And all ya have to do is read Psalm 102 to confirm verse 10-12 are not referring to the Father speaking to the Son. In fact it is the Son speaking to the Father. If you cant see this in Psalm 102, ...honestly, does this sound like the Father speaking to the Son, to you?

Psalm 102
Hear my prayer, O Lord,
And let my cry come to You.
Do not hide Your face from me in the day of my trouble;
Incline Your ear to me;
In the day that I call, answer me speedily...

Who are we trying to kid?

You could tell me all day long verses 10-12 refer to the Son, but I can read for myself.

Not every word Jesus said is a "dark saying." John didn't seem to think that Jesus' statement here was a dark saying, but that it was straightforward. He was literally talking about them destroying a temple and Him raising it again in 3 days. They were just confused about which temple He was talking about.


Other than Jesus' own words? No. Don't need more than that.

21 But he spake of the temple of his body. 22 When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said. The disciple did not fully understand everything Jesus said either, Jesus would often take them aside and explain it to them.
 
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Chriliman

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It seems people want to say what God is not, rather than trust what God is. God is Jesus in the Father and the Father in Jesus, as One.

John 14:11
"Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the works themselves."

Jesus never says He is not God, therefore if we want to be like Him we should also never say Jesus is not God, instead we should say what He is and He says that He is in the Father and the Father is in Him, as One.

From here on out I will ignore anyone who thinks they know what God is not.

God bless!
 
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nomadictheist

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It seems people want to say what God is not, rather than trust what God is. God is Jesus in the Father and the Father in Jesus, as One.

John 14:11
"Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the works themselves."

Jesus never says He is not God, therefore if we want to be like Him we should also never say Jesus is not God, instead we should say what He is and He says that He is in the Father and the Father is in Him, as One.

From here on out I will ignore anyone who thinks they know what God is not.

God bless!
I agree. I'm done arguing in endless circles with people who repeatedly deny what scripture plainly says. The truth is available for those who seek it, and has been laid out with extensive scriptural support as well.
 
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nomadictheist

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What does all this have to do with the argument that the writer of Hebrews is making?
And, your also making up an argument, that I'm simply not making.
I'm talking about how “and,” and “but” are used here in Hebrews.



I'm talking about the order of things, how God made the earth rocks, they don't fully express Him, whether He can make them talk, or not, has nothing to do with anything, I'm talking about how He made them to be. How many times have you heard of the earth speaking, or gardening, or spending time with it's friends?

Animals are living, made as man was made. Do you see rocks singing out? Rocks do not fully express God. I don't want to get sidetracked into one of these debates again, surely, you must know what my point was. This was my comment: “It's not the same, for one, the earth is an object, and are not a full image of God. God does not put His mind, His character, the expression of Himself, the image of Himself in the earth, but in a man He can.” Then you said: “So you're saying an all powerful God is confined to expressing all of His divine attributes only in a man?” Then I said “No, not saying that. What God is like is seen in His creation, but cannot express as a man can.” I am saying, as God has made the earth, it does not fully express God. Your trying to turn it into something I obviously was not saying, if you follow, and keep it in the context of all that I was saying, for I said “No, not saying that.” Then you turn it around and argue that's what I was saying.

Clearly, Man, and rocks do not express God in the same way, God made man with a different purpose, and man was to rule over, and man was to be in the image of God, not rocks in the image of God!



Hebrews 1
5 For [gar] unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee?
And [kia] again [palin], I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
6 And/but [de] again [palin], when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
7 And [kia] of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
8 But [de] unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
10 And [kia], Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
11 They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
12 And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.
13 But [de] to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation?

And all ya have to do is read Psalm 102 to confirm verse 10-12 are not referring to the Father speaking to the Son. In fact it is the Son speaking to the Father. If you cant see this in Psalm 102, ...honestly, does this sound like the Father speaking to the Son, to you?

Psalm 102
Hear my prayer, O Lord,
And let my cry come to You.
Do not hide Your face from me in the day of my trouble;
Incline Your ear to me;
In the day that I call, answer me speedily...

Who are we trying to kid?

You could tell me all day long verses 10-12 refer to the Son, but I can read for myself.



21 But he spake of the temple of his body. 22 When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said. The disciple did not fully understand everything Jesus said either, Jesus would often take them aside and explain it to them.
We have been down this road ad nauseam, but the truth is here for those who want to see it.

Hebrews 1 is clear - it is a logical flow and progression of what God speaks concerning the Son and the angels. John 1 is clear. It speaks of Jesus as the Word, who is God, who became flesh and dwelt among us, who died and was buried, and rose again on the third day, and now sits at the right hand of the Father.

I believe that the inspired word of God was meant to be read without these presuppositions, and without presupposing that Jesus is not God, and at one time was not the Son of God but now is - without these presuppositions, anybody reading these passages would draw the same conclusions that I have, that the church fathers did, and that the authors of these passages did.

You can debate all day long. I will believe what the Bible says, that Jesus, the son of God, was with God in the beginning. That all things were created through Him. That He became flesh, suffered and died on the cross, was buried, and on the third day rose again, having conquered death and become the sacrifice to cover all sins once and for all.

If I am foolish for believing this, so be it. I would rather be a fool for Christ than have the all the respect and wisdom men have to offer.
 
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7xlightray

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Jesus said "I AM"

What does that tell you?

58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM [egō eimi].”

It tells me, we obviously are not understanding him correctly. For just a few verses back he said...

24 Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for if you do not believe that I am He [egō eimi], you will die in your sins.

25 Then they said to Him, “Who are You?”

They did not clue in here. They did not say, He said God's name, the “I AM”, and he is saying, we must believe he is the “I AM.” In stead they asked “Who are you?”

And Jesus said to them, “Just what I have been saying to you from the beginning.” - He goes on to clarify again, “28 Then Jesus said to them, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He [egō eimi],”

So, who is he claiming to be? The lamb that takes away the sins of the world. The one we were told to hear everything he says. Abraham saw his day, and was glad.

I am He [egō eimi] is used many time in scripture, and does not mean the “I AM.”
 
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7xlightray

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We have been down this road ad nauseam, but the truth is here for those who want to see it.

Hebrews 1 is clear - it is a logical flow and progression of what God speaks concerning the Son and the angels. John 1 is clear. It speaks of Jesus as the Word, who is God, who became flesh and dwelt among us, who died and was buried, and rose again on the third day, and now sits at the right hand of the Father.

I believe that the inspired word of God was meant to be read without these presuppositions, and without presupposing that Jesus is not God, and at one time was not the Son of God but now is - without these presuppositions, anybody reading these passages would draw the same conclusions that I have, that the church fathers did, and that the authors of these passages did.

You can debate all day long. I will believe what the Bible says, that Jesus, the son of God, was with God in the beginning. That all things were created through Him. That He became flesh, suffered and died on the cross, was buried, and on the third day rose again, having conquered death and become the sacrifice to cover all sins once and for all.

If I am foolish for believing this, so be it. I would rather be a fool for Christ than have the all the respect and wisdom men have to offer.

Show me in Psalm 102 that it is the Father speaking to the Son.
 
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Der Alte

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which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.
Jesus is talking about Glory which God has given him. This glory was given to him before the foundation of the world, and is written in scripture. Notice how Jesus worded it, he says, God loved him before the foundation of the world. Why is he wording it like that, going all the way back then? Did not God love him between the time from the foundation of the world, to his birth of Marry? It's because it was foreordained of him, for God planed to have a son and give him glory. All this was planed before the foundation of the world. This is the glory Jesus is talking about that he had with God, before the foundation of the world, and put him over all, and loved him all the way back then. This is how God works.

It took you 6 sentences in this attempt to make one verse, John 17:24, say what you want it to. Please show me where this verse says that the Father only loved the Son before the foundation of the world and/or that His love did not continue until the days of Jesus incarnation? In Mark 1:11, Mark 9:7, Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, and Matthew 17:5 says to or of Jesus "...my beloved son."
I can't see anywhere in this verse which refers to anything being foreordained or planned.
Nothing you have said here shows that Jesus did not mean exactly what He said in John 17:5.

John 17:5 "So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world existed.

Jesus did not say "Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory you planned/foreordained for me before the world existed." The disciples did not have a complete NT with them when Jesus spoke the prayer in John 17. When the disciples heard this prayer what would possibly make them think something said about foreordination at a different time, a different place and a different context. I have shown from Novatian that the early church understood that in John 17:5 Jesus said that He existed before the world was.

.
You know what lord of the Sabbath means, and what Luke 6:5 is about? It's not referring to him being God.
He is lord of the rest from all our works.
.
Not relevant to John 17:5. Making an unsupported assertion e.g. "It's not referring to him being God.
He is lord of the rest from all our works." does not make it so.
 
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Der Alte

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. . . So, who is he claiming to be? The lamb that takes away the sins of the world. The one we were told to hear everything he says. Abraham saw his day, and was glad.

If that is true why would the Jews become so enraged that they would desecrate the holiest place in the history of Israel by murdering Jesus in front of witnesses while violating at least 15 of their laws?

I am He [egō eimi] is used many time in scripture, and does not mean the “I AM.”

Please show us some of these times? From my studies, other than Jesus speaking, the phrase "ego eimi"/"I am" only occurs one (1) time in the NT and that one can be very easily ruled out.
 
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7xlightray

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It took you 6 sentences in this attempt to make one verse, John 17:24, say what you want it to. Please show me where this verse says that the Father only loved the Son before the foundation of the world and/or that His love did not continue until the days of Jesus incarnation? In Mark 1:11, Mark 9:7, Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, and Matthew 17:5 says to or of Jesus "...my beloved son."
I can't see anywhere in this verse which refers to anything being foreordained or planned.
Nothing you have said here shows that Jesus did not mean exactly what He said in John 17:5.

John 17:5 "So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world existed.

Jesus did not say "Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory you planned/foreordained for me before the world existed." The disciples did not have a complete NT with them when Jesus spoke the prayer in John 17. When the disciples heard this prayer what would possibly make them think something said about foreordination at a different time, a different place and a different context. I have shown from Novatian that the early church understood that in John 17:5 Jesus said that He existed before the world was.
.
You are missing the point, I did not say the Father did not love him between the foundation of the world, and his birth/incarnation. And what “Mark 1:11, Mark 9:7, Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, and Matthew 17:5” have to do with that time period, is beyond me. Jesus did mean what he said, only you understand it one way, and I understand it another way. If you believe Jesus preexisted as the God, then there will be a good chance you will see it this way. I know this from experience. Anyway, Jesus could have simply said, You loved me before my incarnation/birth, and would have meant the same thing, but he is pointing us to before the foundation of the world. Are you not understanding, when I say it was written all through O/T scripture, that Jesus would be glorified, that God loved him? Here is some help...

Revelation 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.​

1 Peter 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge [4268 prognósis - foreknowledge, previous determination, forethought, prearrangement] of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied. . .20 Who verily was foreordained [4267. proginóskó - which means: I know beforehand, foreknow] before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you. 21 Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory [Who gave him this glory. That would mean “God” in this sentence would be referring to the Father]; that your faith and hope might be in God.

Acts 2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge [4268 prognósis - foreknowledge, previous determination, forethought, prearrangement] of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain. Even John 17:24.​

All this was the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God the Father.

We can put our faith in our fathers, or God. Israel went through the same thing. Their fathers got it wrong quickly after entering the land, God would send them prophets, but they would not listen to them, and they sure loved their gods. These things were written for us.
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Not relevant to John 17:5.
Making an unsupported assertion e.g. "It's not referring to him being God.
He is lord of the rest from all our works." does not make it so.

What do you mean you brought up Luke 6:5 in your post #595.
 
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7xlightray

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If that is true why would the Jews become so enraged that they would desecrate the holiest place in the history of Israel by murdering Jesus in front of witnesses while violating at least 15 of their laws?

Because they did not understand Jesus. All through this chapter they were not understanding Jesus. Jesus even says to those that believed in him, “Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.”

Please show us some of these times? From my studies, other than Jesus speaking, the phrase "ego eimi"/"I am" only occurs one (1) time in the NT and that one can be very easily ruled out.

I just showed you two in post #614.
 
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