When did the early fathers begin to go askew?

True Science

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The offering of the Eucharist is a participation in the eternal, ever present, sacrifice of Jesus. We enter in to his sacrifice.

Yeah, I have no problem with this in a ritualistic typological sense and maybe even if there is some empowerment that God gives us through this. Surely it is a commandment. BUT, truly participating in the sacrifice of Jesus is to present our bodies as a living sacrifice, holy and acceptable to the Lord, not only doing an ordained ritual. We must deny ourselves daily and pick up our crosses daily and follow Christ daily by walking as he walked in order to participate in the truly in Christ's sacrifice.
 
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GoldenKingGaze

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What makes you think that they did?
Because by the eighth century the Roman Catholic church became too political. Because they seemed to lose spiritual practice of healings, love feasts, prophecy and tongues.

There was no longer evidence of the Holy Spirit in their works. So young ones had to learn that the eucharist was blessed and that the Holy Spirit moves people into good works. There were no longer signs and wonders, secret thoughts revealed.

As time went by, the laying on of hands in apostolic succession became a ritual without impartation. The Fathers had true teaching and less and less gifting. They made elaborate allegories of Bible passages. The Russian church, the Roman church and the Greek church all discerned a different seven names of the seven archangels.

The teacher who advocated pre-conception existence was defeated in debate rather than proven wrong. The love in the fathers and monks seemed to become cool. And anathematization became a tool. And this tool was taken to the point of pope killing heretic, brother killing brother.

The true believers were so persecuted that the succession was strained.
 
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tz620q

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Yeah, I have no problem with this in a ritualistic typological sense and maybe even if there is some empowerment that God gives us through this. Surely it is a commandment. BUT, truly participating in the sacrifice of Jesus is to present our bodies as a living sacrifice, holy and acceptable to the Lord, not only doing an ordained ritual. We must deny ourselves daily and pick up our crosses daily and follow Christ daily by walking as he walked in order to participate in the truly in Christ's sacrifice.
What you have said has a lot of merit and is promoted in Catholicism as well. We are called to unite ourselves through the Eucharist to the original sacrifice of Jesus on the cross. Ritual without intent is meaningless; but what is our intent when we do this. It seems that Paul was trying to address this very concern in 1 Corinthians. The Corinthians were eating the Eucharist as just another meal and he correctly pointed out that it has much deeper spiritual significance.

You seem to advocate a "Real Presence" in the Eucharist, albeit a spiritual one only. Catholics would agree that there is a real spiritual presence of Christ in the Eucharist. So it is easy to find Early Church Fathers that talk about this spiritual presence; but to leave it there you have to ignore or refute their statements that only make sense if there is an actual physical presence as well.

So this thread does not make logical sense except when you start from the paradigm that the early church went apostate and then was somehow recovered later through the Reformation. This recovery has taken on many varying beliefs, that are neither coherent with the Early Church Fathers or with other movements within the Reformation. So where is the solid foundation of truth to even frame an argument to prove this theory about the ECF's?
 
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Cappadocious

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Good day, I am interested in knowing about when the early church fathers, in apostolic succession, began to err, to miss the right and true? And also perhaps, grow cold?
April 9, 1906
 
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NonTheologian

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Good day, I am interested in knowing about when the early church fathers, in apostolic succession, began to err, to miss the right and true? And also perhaps, grow cold?
I know the apostolic succession is heavily important, John the apostle's disciple Polycarp for example, a great passing on of the baton. If Polycarp went wrong, John failed as a father. Paul and Peter and all the apostles made converts and had inner circles. But over time, decade after decade, when did they lose speed?

By the eighth century the Roman church had become political. And they may have needed a revival of the healings and prophecies mentioned going into the fifth century?

By the fifth century end, the fathers had addressed each possible kind of heresy. I think last to go was modalism.

I think the concept of an anthropomorphic God was rubbished not counter explained, true? And pre-conception existence? I am interested in others' views?

Keep in mind that the Roman church was never "the Church". The early Church comprised the Sees of Rome, Constantinople, Jerusalem, Antioch, and Alexandria. As you correctly point out, I think, the Roman church did become heavily politicized (under Charlemagne). By the 5th century, the western Roman empire had largely fallen to the western "barbarians", but the eastern empire - which embraced the four remaining Sees - was intact and remained intact through the 15th century.

I would suggest that we consider the hypothesis that the true Church Fathers never did go astray, but rather that a schism developed in which part of the original Church went astray. Orthodox Christians would argue that the Roman Church was the one that went into schism, whereas Roman Catholics would argue that the Orthodox went into schism.
 
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tz620q

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Keep in mind that the Roman church was never "the Church". The early Church comprised the Sees of Rome, Constantinople, Jerusalem, Antioch, and Alexandria. As you correctly point out, I think, the Roman church did become heavily politicized (under Charlemagne). By the 5th century, the western Roman empire had largely fallen to the western "barbarians", but the eastern empire - which embraced the four remaining Sees - was intact and remained intact through the 15th century.

I would suggest that we consider the hypothesis that the true Church Fathers never did go astray, but rather that a schism developed in which part of the original Church went astray. Orthodox Christians would argue that the Roman Church was the one that went into schism, whereas Roman Catholics would argue that the Orthodox went into schism.
Actually after looking at the history of the schism, I would say both sides were at blame, but the history spans nearly a thousand years and is not a straight line to schism. The odd thing is that today we are entrenched in theological debates, when at that time the main factors were linguistic and geopolitical.
 
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NonTheologian

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Actually after looking at the history of the schism, I would say both sides were at blame, but the history spans nearly a thousand years and is not a straight line to schism. The odd thing is that today we are entrenched in theological debates, when at that time the main factors were linguistic and geopolitical.

People tend to look at the schism of 1054 as if it were some discrete event and one that dealt entirely with ecclesiastical authority. Actually, the schism that developed between East and West is distinctly theological and began to appear some 600 years earlier in the dispute between East and West over the relationship between free will and grace - a dispute that was precipitated by Augustine's correct but perhaps overly enthusiastic refutation of Pelagius. The end result was a radically different view of the nature of sin and salvation held by the See of Rome on the one hand, and the eastern Sees (now comprising the Orthodox Church) on the other. Protestantism inherited its basic soteriology from the Roman Catholic Church, rather than from the Eastern Church.
 
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Erose

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Because by the eighth century the Roman Catholic church became too political. Because they seemed to lose spiritual practice of healings, love feasts, prophecy and tongues.

There was no longer evidence of the Holy Spirit in their works. So young ones had to learn that the eucharist was blessed and that the Holy Spirit moves people into good works. There were no longer signs and wonders, secret thoughts revealed.

As time went by, the laying on of hands in apostolic succession became a ritual without impartation. The Fathers had true teaching and less and less gifting. They made elaborate allegories of Bible passages. The Russian church, the Roman church and the Greek church all discerned a different seven names of the seven archangels.

The teacher who advocated pre-conception existence was defeated in debate rather than proven wrong. The love in the fathers and monks seemed to become cool. And anathematization became a tool. And this tool was taken to the point of pope killing heretic, brother killing brother.

The true believers were so persecuted that the succession was strained.
Bull hockey
 
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NonTheologian

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Good day, I am interested in knowing about when the early church fathers, in apostolic succession, began to err, to miss the right and true? And also perhaps, grow cold?

It seems that you are presuming that the Church Fathers did, in fact, err and miss the right and true, as you put it. If this were the case, then those who erred and missed could not, accordingly, be considered Church Fathers, since it is inconceivable that the Church, as the Body of Christ and the pilar and foundation of truth could tolerate untruth, would you agree? If so, then that would mean that the gates of hell did, in fact, at one point prevail.

Another perspective that you might explore is that the Church has continuously maintained truth since its founding. This does not necessarily require a belief in the Roman Catholic Church or any other specific church of Apostolic succession; merely the belief that such a Church of Apostolic succession does, in fact, exist.

I know the apostolic succession is heavily important, John the apostle's disciple Polycarp for example, a great passing on of the baton. If Polycarp went wrong, John failed as a father. Paul and Peter and all the apostles made converts and had inner circles. But over time, decade after decade, when did they lose speed?

I would answer "never". However I, as an Orthodox Christian, would maintain that you will find the valid succession in the Eastern Orthodox Church; a Roman Catholic would argue that you would find it in the Roman Catholic Church; etc.

By the eighth century the Roman church had become political. And they may have needed a revival of the healings and prophecies mentioned going into the fifth century?

I believe that your observation about the Roman church becoming political in the eight century (I would say 9th, with Charlemagne), is somewhat accurate, however politicism was not a plague that affected only the Roman Church. After Constantine legalized Christianity and adopted it as the official Church of the Empire, politics infused much of the ecclesiastical structure of the Church. Many of the early Church canons were actually "nomocanons" - rules to be followed not only by the Church, but by the entire Empire. This in itself, however, does not imply that the entire Church was corrupted. There has always been a faithful core which maintained what was true, and contributed to the eventual correction of errors by parts of the Church. I would argue that the greatest strength of the first millennium Church was its consistency in five independent Sees (Rome, Constantinople, Antioch, Jerusalem, Alexandria), which formed a sort of system of checks and balances. This system was weakened when Rome and the eastern Sees broke from each other in the 11th century. Again, we may argue amongst ourselves about what constitutes or constituted the faithful core, and which parts were/are in heresy and/or schism.

By the fifth century end, the fathers had addressed each possible kind of heresy. I think last to go was modalism.

The last great heresy addressed by the first millennial Church was iconoclasm. It was dealt with by the Seventh Ecumenical Council in 787 (i.e. the eighth century) in Nicea, which coincidentally was the Council that definitively established the canon of the New Testament for the entire Church (it had only been established in local councils until then).

Heresy is the predominant form of Christianity today, if one holds that false theology constitutes heresy. I am not making this statement based on my being an Orthodox Christian, but rather by applying certain logic. There are hundreds, if not, thousands of Christian groups today - usually claiming to be "churches" - which hold conflicting beliefs. Even if one apply the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed as a sort of "least common denominator" to proof-test beliefs (as does CF), there is broad disagreement over how it should be interpreted. In some cases it has been modified (e.g. as is the case with the Roman Catholic Church). True and false doctrine cannot coexist within the true Church. Logically, all or all but a handful (or maybe just one) of the Christian groups existing today exist outside the Church.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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The problem that happened was early Greek, Platonic and Gnositic philosophical ideas influenced Christians of the nations, and even some Jewish believers, like the Essenes. The first part of this great falling away was very early when they started making the Law of none effect: https://2kgsha.bn1304.livefilestore.com/y3mMXqXR1SW0HjDKCggFkVxo_8TuMk2F-XzNp8V98d0lhHBT8i5DnwFZuuUCoMbT2fbOM3CvHYovTYrZe1zMgboqcsLWKIeF7HPxxtKC5eumQMDq3BXDty_1CLvgmaJnMWsfFPIxLfEO3n6yCYqs0KbkltQ-STP9d2J8I-kji0PcWY/Extra-Biblical Historical Proof That The Early Orthodox Christian Assembly Of God Was Torah Observant.pdf?psid=1

They were embracing slowly more and more Greek, platonic and gnostic philosophical ideas and syncing them with the faith. Thus later many more heresies entered into the faith, a lot of which was due to gnostic allegorization of Scripture (allegory is not bad but they sacrifice literalness and plain context for it to invent new things), Trinitarianism/Modelism (except for details, they really are the same platonic pantheism--the Truth is Semi-Arianism which is both Scripturally sound and philosophically sound without sacrificing the biblical text), Amillennialism (which brought forth other later heresies like Preterism, Post Millennialism and Dispensationalism), and later with Augustine you have the mainstream heretical version of Original Sin/Inability. They also started becoming very mystical and monkish monastics. Their disregard for the Law ended up bringing in sin, like pagan syncing and idol worship. Later in the Reformation it would be worse where we got Faith Alone, OSAS, Calvinism (Theistic Fatalism). and in the enlightenment libertarian thought, Christian anarchism, "love" is the Law, mixing worldly morals with the faith even more because no foundation in the Law which defines sin. We also have the Christians mixing with worldly states to the degree that they are willing to compromise the faith for unity with the world. This happened starting with Constantine. I have no problem with a Christian state if God gives it but it should be run by the Law of God, a true righteous theocracy, and with pure doctrine, like King Abgar, who you can read about in my article. Of course there is also the serious problem that people started disobeying Paul and despising prophecy, and the gifts, and Holy Spirit power, saying that God changed and doesn't do anything anymore and it is all tradition or Bible. This happened the most with later Protestants. Catholics a little too, but not so much. Certainly it can be backed up in Judges that the Holy Spirit power would sometimes be not very visible for a while like in those days, which are the type of the New Covenant times that have come, but there is no evidence of an utter cessation once we got a manmade canon in the text and people made it up because they didn't like truth. Just like how the canon is manmade. There is absolutely no support in Scripture for the Protestant canon and Sola Scriptura. And all the canons of major Christian groups are wrong according to their own bibles. People just stopped loving God's word and they explained it away with manmade traditions. It happened slowly more and more and now we are in utter full blown apostasy.

I want to see from "Greek, platonic and gnostic philosophical ideas" primary source quotes to prove that. Please, quote first a Church Father, then the source of influence from primary sources only.

No Second sources like Alexander Hislop(Two Babylons) which has been refuted by Ralph Woodrow in The Babylon Connection?!!!
 
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JackRT

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Most of scripture was written by Jews, for Jews and about Jews. The Jews to whom it was addressed understood it in the context of Jewish history and their literary traditions like haggadic midrash. They knew that much of it was not to be understood literally but rather allegorically. However, within a century of the death of Jesus the early Christian church had already ceased to be a movement within Judaism and had become Gentile and largely Greek speaking. In this transition Christians lost the ability to read scripture "with Jewish eyes". They began to read scripture as literal --- a great mistake. Some call this the "Gentile Heresy". It continues thus to this present day throughout Christianity in all but a few circles.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Okay so you are saying that at this time the Jews were expelled from Rome? Then Paul wrote Romans to them to tell them not to be Jew haters and submit to Jewish leadership and they did not listen? And so were the Jews allowed to come back to Rome at some point around this time and yet they were not received by the Gentiles as leadership or at all?

Early Settlement in Rome.

Capital in ancient times of the Roman republic and empire; in modern times, of the papal dominions and of the kingdom of Italy. Jews have lived in Rome for over 2,000 years, longer than in any other European city.
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/12816-rome

Romans 16:7New International Version (NIV)
7 Greet Andronicus and Junia, my fellow Jews the apostles, and they were in Christ before I was.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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No actually Rome embraced many gnostic elements later slowly more and more. Obviously not in regards to the Eucharist. With that they went into some hyper mystical direction and made it literally the Body and Blood of Christ. Ironically, I have read some awesome refutations of Ignatius teaching transubstantiation by Protestant writers. I must say they are much more in keeping with the context of Ignatius than Roman Catholics. Ignatius was not Catholic. He was just catholic. He was part of the true Nazarene Catholic Assembly of God. He was not an anti-Torah wicked heretic like Rome says he was.

Prove it with primary sources only. No secondary or third hearsay sources.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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I believe that the early church began to lose focus when it ceased the be primarily a Jewish movement and became a Gentile movement late in the first century. This meant that Christians increasingly lost the ability to read scripture "with Jewish eyes" and began to increasingly read literally rather than allegorically. We could call this the "Gentile heresy".

Origen is the only one I know who could fit your description.

Prove it with primary sources only. No secondary or third hearsay sources.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Daniel Marsh

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Did you just say that the heresies came by Gentiles reading Scripture literally instead of allegorically? If anything it was vice versa, as I stated, but mine was an oversimplification.

The following response to a post-millennialist kingdom now dominionist will illustrate my point:

"“"Pardes" refers to (types of) approaches to biblical exegesis in rabbinic Judaism or to interpretation of text in Torah study. The term, sometimes also spelled PaRDeS, is an acronym formed from the same initials of the following four approaches:


· Peshat (פְּשָׁט) — "surface" ("straight") or the literal (direct) meaning.[1]

· Remez (רֶמֶז) — "hints" or the deep (allegoric: hidden or symbolic) meaning beyond just the literal sense.

· Derash (דְּרַשׁ) — from Hebrew darash: "inquire" ("seek") — the comparative (midrashic) meaning, as given through similar occurrences.

· Sod (סוֹד) (pronounced with a long O as in 'sore') — "secret" ("mystery") or the esoteric/mystical meaning, as given through inspiration or revelation.


Each type of Pardes interpretation examines the extended meaning of a text. As a general rule, the extended meaning never contradicts the base meaning. The Peshat means the plain or contextual meaning of the text. Remez is the allegorical meaning. Derash includes the metaphorical meaning, andSod represents the hidden meaning. There is often considerable overlap, for example when legal understandings of a verse are influenced by mystical interpretations or when a "hint" is determined by comparing a word with other instances of the same word.”

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pardes_(Jewish_exegesis)


This is unfortunately something that the Jews do not actually subject themselves to and follow, because if they did, they would have no problem with how the NT interprets things. It is only because they don't like the Truth of how things really are.


But here is the thing, none of those other ones ever contradict or nullify the Peshat unless it is impossible or obvious that the Peshat cannot be. Every other system other than biblical Premillennialism (not the Darby kind or its offshoots) makes the OT Prophecies subjective. There is no logical rule to how to interpret whether or not something is literal or not except for the vague basis of "in light of the NT" or many times what people think the NT says with their presuppositions into what the text says, which are a lot of times wrong, because they don't have a good foundation in the OT ( and this can happen in reverse too, which is something that the "Ebionites" as you call them all do not realize). But this is the same thing people do with the NT in regards to the Law. The Law is subjected to the "NT" (supposedly). But here is the thing, if people were testing the Apostles' message to see if these things are so, then the OT couldn't have really helped them much, because they would have just had to subject clear literal things in the text to whatever they say or else be heretics and wrong. But those who did test by the Scriptures of the OT those says were said to be more noble, the Bereans that is. In reality if we are to take what you guys (Amills, Post-Mills, Preters, Darby Dispies, and so on) say, then anyone could make the OT say a huge variety of interpretations they want, and they could all be right, because it is subjective, and no one could question, because it is "divine revelation" that I got that I'm right. And the miracles confirming their message is really not going to help much since evil people can do them too, and we have to test the spirits, and also you don't even believe they happen anymore, which would be convenient, because now we have no way of knowing if all that wasn't made up for sure because we weren't there, and it could have been all a lie in order to give authority to a flawed pseudo fullfillment of prophecy.


People can sit there and try to fluff it up all they want and wrangle the Word to into as huge web of systematic theology all they want to try to explain this away all they want, but in the end, anyone with any sense can see that to do this makes the Prophecies incoherent and subjective, and therefore not much more useful and impressive then, say, the so-called "prophecies" (more like babble) of Nostradamus. And therefore you vindicate the Atheists who call the Bible the Babble, which they are right if what you say is true. No amount of vain reasoning this away will stop the truth of what I'm saying. There are many things in Post Millennialism I have heard you say that I like (or rather my likes and wants to be true) but I can't just ignore the clear reading of Scripture and reject its authority in favor of some inferences that people like you make off a few select verses here and there. P.S. I agree, the Torah does change as in Ezekiel 40-48. There are addendums to the Torah all over the place in the OT, which is something the HRM really needs to wake up to and realize that YHWH can change the Letter of his written Torah. This would save a lot of people from becoming rejecters of Yeshua."

That approach is a word study fallacy. Wikipedia is a poor source of theological information. Prove it with primary sources only. No secondary or third hearsay sources.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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This is merely a claim with no evidence. And yes it was catholic then but you have hijacked the term. I agree with the true Catholic Assembly. I do not agree with the Great Apostasy. I do not agree with the Mother of Harlots or her daughter offshoots.

I am not Catholic, but I believe in giving the other sides best arguments for refutation.


The Fathers:

The Didache (C. 90 - 150 A.D.):

"Assemble on the Lord’s day, and break bread and offer the Eucharist; But first make confession of your faults, so that your sacrifice may be a pure one...For this is the offering of which the Lord has said, ‘Everywhere and always bring me a sacrifice that is undefiled, for I am a great king, says the Lord and my name is the wonder of nations’ (Malachias 1, 11,...)."

St. Clement of Rome, Letter to the Corinthians (C. 98 A.D.):

"Our sin will not be small if we eject from the episcopate those who blamelessly and holily have offered its Sacrifices. Blessed are those presbyters who have already finished their course, and who have obtained a fruitful and perfect release."

St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Philadelphians (C. 110 A.D.):

"Take care, then, to use one Eucharist, so that whatever you do, you do according to God: for there is one Flesh of Our Lord Jesus Christ, and one cup in the union of His Blood; one altar, as there is one bishop with the presbytery and my fellow servants, the deacons."

St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrnaeans (C. 110 A.D.):

"They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not confess that the Eucharist is the Flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, Flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in His goodness, raised up again. They who deny the gift of God are perishing in their disputes."

St. Justin Martyr, First Apology, C. 66 (C. 155 A.D.):

"For not as common bread nor common drink do we receive these; but since Jesus Christ our Savior was made incarnate by the word of God and had both flesh and blood for our salvation, so too, as we have been taught, the food which has been made into the Eucharist by the Eucharistic prayer set down by Him, and by the change of which our blood and flesh is nourished is both the flesh and the blood of that incarnated Jesus...The Apostles, in the Memoirs which they produced, which are called Gospels, have thus passed on that which was enjoined upon them: that Jesus took bread and, having given thanks, said, ‘Do this in remembrance of Me; this is My Body.’ And in like manner, taking the cup, and having given thanks, He said, ‘This is My Blood.’ And He imparted this to them only."

St. Irenaeus of Lyons, Against Heresies (C. 180 A.D.):

"If the body be not saved, in fact, neither did the Lord redeem us with His Blood; and neither is the cup of the Eucharist the partaking of His Blood nor is the Bread which we break the partaking of His Body."

St. Athanasius, Sermon to the Newly Baptized (370 A.D.):

"Let us approach the celebration of the mysteries. This bread and this wine, so as long as the prayers and supplications have not taken place, remain simply what they are. But after the great prayers and holy supplications have been sent forth, the Word comes down into the bread and wine - and thus is His Body confected."

St. Augustine of Hippo, Explanation of the Psalms (C. 400 A.D.):

"‘And he was carried in his own hands.’ But, brethren, how is it possible for a man to do this? Who can understand it? Who is it that is carried in his own hands? A man can be carried in the hands of another; but no one can be carried in his own hands. How this should be understood literally of David, we cannot discover; but we can discover how it is meant of Christ. For Christ was carried in His own hands, when, referring to His own Body, He said:‘This is My Body’ for He carried that Body in His hands."
 
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Daniel Marsh

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So when you get sprinkled by the Blood of Christ. Does his blood from Calvary literally appear and fall on you so that you have his blood on you? Like seriously, use your common sense.

There is also no doubt that the early Assembly saw the Eucharist in a sacrificial sense, and I agree with them to the point, like what the Didache says. But how far the RCC takes this to me clearly is going against what Hebrews says about Christ offering himself once and not needing to be offered over an dover again.

I don't remember any Catholic source saying Jesus is re-crucified at every Eucharist.
 
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