Do we speak of the Bible this way?

~Anastasia~

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I honestly don't know, so I'm asking. It has come up ...

Would the Orthodox refer to the Bible as "the inerrant Word of God"? ... minus the capital "W" perhaps?

And for my own information, if the answer is "no" I'd like to understand the thinking behind it? Thank you so much!
 
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~Anastasia~

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~Anastasia~

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It says Archbishop Lazar
Yes ... I'm just wondering if there is more than one. I don't want to go into it really.

The comments on the second one are showing this is quite a controversial question?
 
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All4Christ

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Yes ... I'm just wondering if there is more than one. I don't want to go into it really.

The comments on the second one are showing this is quite a controversial question?
Ah ok, yea I tend to skip out on the conversations with scandals or people who misrepresent Orthodoxy. I agree about not going into it, though I would like to know if it is not accurate Orthodox teaching.

And yea, it does seem controversial. Maybe our resident seminarians could explain what they are being taught at the seminaries about this?
 
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~Anastasia~

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I *think* I know how we consider Scripture. But I don't know if we would say "The Bible is the inerrant Word of God."

Fact is ... depending on how you define "inerrant" ... it's actually not. If by that you mean there are absolutely no mistakes or contradictions whatsoever in it. I was taught as a Protestant that there were not, and I defended that position because it seemed important to the basis of my faith. Then when I started noticing things, like the days of the week and order of events regarding the Crucifixion ... well, if your faith is invested too much in the book itself, that can cause a problem. My faith - like pretty much all Protestants, I imagine - was actually in God Himself. But my faith in what I had been taught was shaken ...
 
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~Anastasia~

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Yes, I'd like to hear their opinion. :) I was tempted to ask on FB - there are some there whose opinion I would love to have. But otoh, there are those who would jump in and it would probably create a mess on my page. I don't want to create a bunch of controversy right now ...
 
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All4Christ

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From what I have heard, he should be taken most cautiously.
Thanks for letting me know! It's very easy with the Internet to get "Orthodox" sources that are possibly not fully "orthodox". Probably would be wise for me to stick to Ancient Faith or sites like that.
 
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gzt

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I don't know much about him except that he was a metropolitan of the OCA in the past. He retired before I became a Orthodox.
That is not quite true. Here's the deal: he was with some schismatic groups and wanted to "come in from the cold", so the OCA accepted him as a retired archbishop.
 
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~Anastasia~

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That is not quite true. Here's the deal: he was with some schismatic groups and wanted to "come in from the cold", so the OCA accepted him as a retired archbishop.
Well, that at least explains a little for me. It's better than thinking he was an actual active canonical bishop at some point.

The question of whether Scripture is or is not inerrant might be a relatively "safe" one but - anyway, as soon as I saw the name, I stopped reading. He "friended" me on FB at one point, but when I couldn't get answers from him about the things he was saying, I unfriended him.

That seems SO WEIRD ... me as a new convert, and him with the title of "archbishop" ... in any sense.
 
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Lukaris

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Anyway - I apologize. I should not have mentioned him at all but I like to know my sources.

Can anyone help with the original question?

I do not see why you need to apologize; I think we just wanted to share a note of caution re Fr. Lazar.
 
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~Anastasia~

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I do not see why you need to apologize; I think we just wanted to share a note of caution re Fr. Lazar.
Thank you. I just don't like bringing it up. If All4Christ didn't know who he was, then I suppose it's somewhat useful at least.

I'm just uncomfortable criticizing bishops - but it seems he is not a bishop in the same way. And besides, I do understand that it is the actual responsibility of the faithful to protest wrong teaching by a bishop, even if he is in place and canonical. It just makes me uncomfortable to think about it.
 
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Lukaris

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I honestly don't know, so I'm asking. It has come up ...

Would the Orthodox refer to the Bible as "the inerrant Word of God"? ... minus the capital "W" perhaps?

And for my own information, if the answer is "no" I'd like to understand the thinking behind it? Thank you so much!


Usually the only other term I hear within Orthodoxy other than the Bible is the "Holy Scriptures." I guess such a term as "inerrant Word of God" is ok if used within the understanding of Holy Tradition. It might be that this term has been used too frequently when associated with conflicting and non Orthodox theology that it is virtually nonexistent in Orthodox faith expression.

I think the Church prefers to always think of the Bible and the Church to guard us against misinterpretation of the Holy Scriptures. Bishop Kallistos (nee Timothy) Ware writes, "The Christian Church is a scriptural church....The Bible is the supreme expression of God's revelation to the human race, and Christians must always be "People of the Book." But if Christians are People of the Book, the Bible is the Book of the People; it must not be regarded as something set up over the Church, but as something that lives and is understood within the Church (that is why one should not separate Scripture and Tradition)." From: The Orthodox Church, Chapter 10: Holy Tradition: The Source of the Orthodox Faith.

I do think that Biblical teaching to the laity has suffered for generations though from various, complex reasons (like communist revolutions, Islamic oppression etc.) or simple negligence.
 
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~Anastasia~

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Thank you, Lukaris. I'm starting to think this question is actually one of those that doesn't "compute" when translated into Orthodoxy.

I like the Bp. Ware quote, btw.

I don't know. I don't have the words to express it, but it seems there is something so natural and "connected" between the Church, Tradition, the Scriptures, the Saints, the Liturgy, the practice of the faith, the faithful ... so many things just FIT together, and can't be separated out, mathematical equations don't work among them. It's more just a living, breathing whole.

I'm not sure if I'm making sense. But it reminds me, for example, of the charges some make that we put Tradition over Scripture, for example. It doesn't make sense to break down and compartmentalize parts of the whole, and makes even less sense to mathematically analyze them. But of course we don't put Tradition over Scripture.
 
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Lukaris

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I think the Lord Jesus Christ provides the overall framework of the Old Testament pointing to Him within the Gospels.

For ex. the golden rule is defined as the law and the prophets in Matthew 7:12 in the summation of verses from Matthew 7:1-12. Later, He preaches that on the 2 great commands hang all of law and the prophets in summation in Matthew 22:40 from verses Matthew 22:36-40. The risen Lord testified that all things written of Him in the law, prophets, & Psalms must be fulfilled in Luke 24:44-45. Obviously He is to be found in His scripture which is obvious in a place like Isaiah 53 (for ex. ) but difficult to comprehend in certain other areas. I think reading an early church writing like the Didache (ca. 90-100 AD) and comparing it with a basic prayer book can give us a feel for the church side of holy tradition. This derives basically from the Biblical framework preached & established by the Lord Himself to the apostles.

I just wanted to add that the article from Bishop Lazar seemed basically sound but I have witnessed legitimate and serious concerns re his theology elsewhere. I could not look up the other article though.
 
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