The Parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus Explained

cgaviria

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First and foremost the passage of the rich man and Lazarus is a parable. There have been countless false doctrines created from this passage breaking many other scriptures. But before even digging into the interpretation of the parable, we first need to bring to light some clues and evidences indicating that it is indeed a parable,

This passage happens to reside in a set of parables that precede it immediately, coincidence? No. Because it is part of the set of 5 parables that started off in this scripture,
[1] And were approaching to him all the tax collectors and the sinners to hear him. [2] And the Pharisees and the scribes complained, saying that, This one receives favorably sinners, and eats with them. (Luke 15:1-2 [ABP])

And then this verse starts,
And he spoke to them this parable, saying, (Luke 15:3 [ABP])

So then he begins the set of parables, starting off with the first parable,
What man of you, having a hundred sheep, and having lost one of them, leaves not the ninety nine in the wilderness, and goes after the one being lost, until he should find it? (Luke 15:4 [ABP])

Notice how it starts with "what man of you". Lets look at the next parable,
Or what woman having ten drachmas, if she should lose one drachma, does not light a lamp, and sweeps the house, and seeks carefully until whenever she should find it? (Luke 15:8 [ABP])

Notice the "or" at the commencement of this second parable. This second parable is connected to the first. Right after Jesus tells him the first parable, he then tells him this second parable. This parable then starts with "what woman". Here's the next parable,
And he said, A certain man had two sons. (Luke 15:11 [ABP])

Notice how it also says, "and" he said, therefore this one is also connected to the previous. These parables are continuing in a series. And this one starts with "a certain man". Here is the next one,
And he said also to his disciples, A certain man was rich, who had a manager; and this one was accused by him as wasting his possessions. (Luke 16:1 [ABP])

This one starts with, "a certain man was rich". And then lets look at the final parable, the rich man and lazarus,
And a certain man was rich, and dressed in purple and linen, being merry daily and glowing. (Luke 16:19 [ABP])

This one starts with "a certain man was rich", starting off exactly as the previous parable and in similar fashion as the others. All these parables are part of a set of 5 parables that are spoken one after the other.

Just based on these evidences alone, how can anyone refute that this passage is indeed a parable? Lets move on to the actual interpretation of the parable,

The rich man refers to the Jews, who were the children of promise, as the rich man even says, "Father Abraham", therefore he has Abraham as a father. He was rich, as we see evident in one of many scriptures, but this one specifically referring to the tribe of Judah that I will elaborate on shortly,
And the LORD straightened the kingdom in his hand; and all Judah gave gifts to Jehoshaphat, and there became to him much riches and glory. (2 Chronicles 17:5 [ABP])

and they were also rich because they were entrusted with the Law and the oracles of God. The rich man also wore purple and linen. Purple indicates royalty, and scripture has indicated that a line a royalty would come through the tribe of Judah.
A ruler shall not fail from Judah, and one leading from his thighs, until whenever should come the things reserved to him. And he is expectation of nations. (Genesis 49:10 [ABP])

Linen indicates priesthood, and priesthood was attributed to the tribe of Levi.
and the Levites, the psalm singers, all with the sons of Asaph, of Heman, to Jeduthun, and to their sons, and to their brethren of the ones putting on apparels of fine linen, with cymbals, and with stringed instruments, and with lutes, were standing over against the altar, and with them a hundred and twenty priests trumpeting with the trumpets. (2 Chronicles 5:12 [ABP])

The levites were loyal to the tribe of Judah throughout history,
And rose up the rulers of the families of Judah, and Benjamin, and the priests, and the Levites -- all which God awakened their spirit to ascend to build the house of the LORD, the one in Jerusalem. (Ezra 1:5 [ABP])

and both tribes were predominant in what was considered the "Jews" at the time, and were also intermixed, some being both of the tribe of Judah, and also of the tribe of Levi at the same time,
And there was a young man from out of Beth-lehem Judah from the kin of Judah, and he was a Levite, and he sojourned there.(Judges 17:7 [ABP])

What was considered "Jews" at this time, did also include an intermix of other tribes as well. But why were these two tribes worth mention in this Parable? Because it is what most of the scribes, pharisees, sadducees, were descended from and they themselves were high in politics, religion, and in business, hence why we have these scriptures,
[2] saying, Upon the chair of Moses sat the scribes and the Pharisees. [3] All then, as much as they should say to you to give heed, you give heed and do! But according to their works do not do! for they speak and do not do. (Matthew 23:2-3 [ABP])

And also we have these other verses,
Woe to you scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, for you devour the houses of the widows, and as an excuse praying long; on account of this you shall receive more extra judgment. (Matthew 23:13 [ABP])
Woe to you scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites, for you lead about the sea and the dry land, to make one convert, and whenever he becomes so, you make him a son of Gehenna -- more double than yourselves. (Matthew 23:15 [ABP])
Woe to you scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites; for you tithe the mint, and the dill, and the cummin, and leave the heavier matters of the law -- the judgment, and the mercy, and the belief -- these necessary to do, and these are not allowed. (Matthew 23:23 [ABP])
Woe to you scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites; for you are like tombs being whitewashed, ones which outside indeed appear beautiful, but inside are full of bones of the dead and of all uncleanness. (Matthew 23:27 [ABP])

Both the tribes of Judah and Levi were also siblings, born of Jacob and Leah. The 5 brothers in the parable are the 5 siblings of the tribe of Judah, because Jacob and Leah brought forth 6 sons, therefore the tribe of Judah had 5 brothers, as it is accounted in Genesis,
The sons of Leah, the first-born of Jacob, Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Judah, Issachar, Zebulun. (Genesis 35:23 [ABP])

Lazarus is the Greek name for the Hebrew name "Eliezer", which in itself means "helpless", or "help". Aside from the obvious choice of name and its meaning to further indicate how the Lazarus of the parable was (the choice in name is not a coincidence), we also see a link with the same usage of the name the account of Genesis with Abraham's servant named Eliezer,
And Abram says, Master, O LORD, what will you give to me, for I am wasting away childless, but the son of Masek of my native-born maid servant, this Damascus Eliezer is heir? (Genesis 15:2 [ABP])

Yet the promises were not given to the servant, but rather to the child of promise, Isaac, as it is written,
And straightly the voice of the LORD came to him, saying, This one will not be heir to you, another will come forth from you, this one will be heir to you. (Genesis 15:4 [ABP])

So what is this parable really saying? That the children of promise will NOT be the ones who will be in Abraham's bosom, but rather, it will be given to those who were not born physically of the promise of the Jews. Who will it be given to? The Gentiles, as it is said,
[11] And I say to you, that many from east and west shall come, and shall be lain down with Abraham and Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of the heavens. [12] But the sons of the kingdom shall be cast out into the outer darkness; there, there shall be weeping and the gnashing of teeth.
(Matthew 8:11-12 [ABP])

The sons of the kingdom is referring to the Jews. Also we have this scriptures,

[26] And the woman was a Greek, Syro-phoenician by race, and she asked him that he should cast out the demon from her daughter. [27] And Jesus said to her, Allow the children first to be filled! For it is not good to take the bread of the children, and to throw it to the little dogs. [28] And she answered and says to him, Yes, O Lord, but even the little dogs underneath the table eat from the crumbs of the children. [29] And he said to her, On account of this word, go! The demon has come forth from out of your daughter.
(Mark 7:26-29 [ABP])

In this very scripture Jesus is calling the Gentiles dogs, which alludes to the parable where "the dogs were licking his sores". For at that present time, salvation was only of the Jews, at it was said by Jesus,
You do obeisance to whom you know not; we do obeisance to whom we know; for the deliverance is of the Jews. (John 4:22 [ABP])

Yet now "deliverance", or "salvation" as the word some translations use, has been extended to the Gentiles, who were not the physical children of promise who are the Jews,
Let it be known then to you! that to the nations the deliverance of God was sent, and they will hearken. (Acts 28:28 [ABP])

Nations here being "Gentiles", also we have this scripture,
For I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, of this mystery, that you should not be intelligent in yourselves, that callousness has happened in part to Israel until of which time the fullness of the nations should enter in. (Romans 11:25 [ABP])

So Lazarus is indeed referring to the gentiles in this parables, the ones who were not born of the promise physically. So in the parable, what is also said about the 5 brothers?
And Abraham says, They have Moses and the prophets, let them hear them! (Luke 16:29 [ABP])

Indeed they did have Moses and the prophets, because these were all entrusted with the law and the oracles of God (the prophets).

The great chasm symbolizes the will of God. It is by the will of God that the separation is established of those receiving the promises of Abraham and those who are not.

What does the flame in Hades symbolize? It symbolizes that the children of promise that are not in Jesus Christ will be taken out of Hades and thrown into the fire of Gehenna.

The drop of water symbolizes mercy, as even the rich man says, "have mercy on me". Yet Abraham's response is,
And upon all these things, between us and you is a great chasm firmly fixed; so that the ones wanting to pass over on this side to you are not able, nor the ones from there to us should pass through. (Luke 16:26 [ABP])

No water is given because of the great chasm. So what does this mean? No mercy will be given at the judgment of Gehenna because of the will of God.

So what does it mean that Lazarus was leaning on the bosom of Abraham?

It literally means that those that are not physical children of the promise (Gentiles) will also be resurrected along with Abraham and will have Abraham before their very eyes to receive the true promises and true inheritances. The rich man, in this parable, represents not all Jews in general, because there are children of the promise that will also receive the promises and inheritance to come,
According to belief these all died, not receiving the promises, but at a distance beholding them, and being persuaded, and greeting, and acknowledging that they are strangers and immigrants upon the earth. (Hebrews 11:13 [ABP])

but instead the rich man alludes to Jews that are like the Pharisees, Sadduccees, and Scribes.

Taking this parable literally breaks countless other scriptures. The teaching of a "hell" where you are alive burning endlessly is a pagan teaching. I challenge you to study the origins of that teaching, stemming from the catholic church and even before that as well. It is pagan, it is false, and corrupts the understanding of the work of God.

May God bless and open your understanding. You can also view this post on my blog, http://www.wisdomofgod.co/2015/12/13/the-parable-of-the-rich-man-and-lazarus-explained/ .
 
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Wgw

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Taking this parable literally BREAKS countless other scriptures. The teaching of a "hell" where you are alive burning endlessly is a pagan teaching. I challenge you to study the origins of that teaching, stemming from the catholic church and even before that as well. It is pagan, it is false, and corrupts the understanding of the work of God.

Basically your argument in this paragraph is that we should accept your non-obvious interpretation of this parable, which most Christians reject, because the standard Christian interpretation is Catholic and therefore pagan.

Some members might be inclined to accept your interpretation; some might say it is a valid supercessionist interpretarion one could read into the parable in addition to the more conventional eschatological interpretation, however, this last paragraph is basically fallacious.
 
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cgaviria

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Basically your argument here is that we should accept your non-obvious interpretation of this parable, which most Christians reject, because the standard Christian interpretation is Catholic

Yes.
 
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Wgw

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Pure fallacy. Catholicism is wrong, therefore everything they teach must be wrong. If we take this point to its logical conclusion we should just embrace a completely non-Christian religion that is unlike Christianity in any respects. Perhaps Jainism fits the bill.
 
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cgaviria

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Pure fallacy. Catholicism is wrong, therefore everything they teach must be wrong. If we take this point to its logical conclusion we should just embrace a completely non-Christian religion that is unlike Christianity in any respects. Perhaps Jainism fits the bill.

Yes.
 
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AV1611VET

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First and foremost the passage of the rich man and Lazarus is a parable.
No, actually it's not.

And even if it was, what makes you think Jesus' parables were not real events that He witnessed?
 
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Wgw

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So I shall now turn the tables, to use a phrase I seem to be using more and more these days, to show the logical error in your position. I am not Roman Catholic; you are not a Jehovah's Witness. Now, the Jehovah's Witnesses are much worse, objectively speaking, than RCs, given the control they exert over their members, et cetera; they are not recognized as Christians by this site.

Now, you say an eternal Hell must be rejected because the Catholics believe in it.

I say that by this logic, we should reject annhilationism, because the Jehovah's Witnesses believe in it.

Let us consider another example. Muslims believe in God. Islamic terrorists routinely commit attrocities. Therefore, by your logic, we should reject a belief in God.

Arguments are not enhanced by this sort of fallacious argument. It is essentially a red herring that functions in a manner similiar to an ad hominem. If we automatically reject a view because a person or group/corporation/political entity et cetera embraces it, then we are irrational. We are in effect allowing our own beliefs to be dictated by our opponents.

The hilarious thing in this whole point is that your interpretation of the parable in question is actually interesting; it does not exclude a belief that the parable might also refer to eternal punishment; a major principle of exegetical interpetation is that verses can contain multiple meanings and levels of meaning. So we can regard Exodus as both a literal historical narrative and as a discussion of our own sojourn in this world, our own path to salvation. So what you have done is in effect alienate people who might otherwise accept your argument by taking a fallacious, unwarranted, and unprovoked potshot at the much maligned RCs.
 
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cgaviria

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So I shall now turn the tables, to use a phrase I seem to be using more and more these days, to show the logical error in your position. I am not Roman Catholic; you are not a Jehovah's Witness. Now, the Jehovah's Witnesses are much worse, objectively speaking, than RCs, given the control they exert over their members, et cetera; they are not recognized as Christians by this site.

Now, you say an eternal Hell must be rejected because the Catholics believe in it.

I say that by this logic, we should reject annhilationism, because the Jehovah's Witnesses believe in it.

Let us consider another example. Muslims believe in God. Islamic terrorists routinely commit attrocities. Therefore, by your logic, we should reject a belief in God.

Arguments are not enhanced by this sort of fallacious argument. It is essentially a red herring that functions in a manner similiar to an ad hominem. If we automatically reject a view because a person or group/corporation/political entity et cetera embraces it, then we are irrational. We are in effect allowing our own beliefs to be dictated by our opponents.

The hilarious thing in this whole point is that your interpretation of the parable in question is actually interesting; it does not exclude a belief that the parable might also refer to eternal punishment; a major principle of exegetical interpetation is that verses can contain multiple meanings and levels of meaning. So we can regard Exodus as both a literal historical narrative and as a discussion of our own sojourn in this world, our own path to salvation. So what you have done is in effect alienate people who might otherwise accept your argument by taking a fallacious, unwarranted, and unprovoked potshot at the much maligned RCs.

Regardless of which church believes what, the scripture is TRUTH, and each time I declare a belief in something, I back it by a valid scripture. If any church does not abide by scripture, whether catholic, or JW, then they are in error. However, the catholic church is a terrible WICKED institution, the MOTHER OF HARLOTS (OTHER FALSE CHURCHES), the harlot OF BABYLON (THE GREAT FALSE CHURCH), so I will surely LAY BLAME where BLAME IS DUE. And it does pain me to see how deep the deception of that church runs, even in the "Christian" churches, that still uphold many of their doctrines and false teachings.
 
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Wgw

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Regardless of which church believes what, the scripture is TRUTH, and each time I declare a belief in something, I back it by a valid scripture. If any church does not abide by scripture, whether catholic, or JW, then they are in error. However, the catholic church is a terrible WICKED institution, the MOTHER OF HARLOTS (OTHER FALSE CHURCHES), the harlot OF BABYLON (THE GREAT FALSE CHURCH), so I will surely LAY BLAME where BLAME IS DUE. And it does pain me to see how deep the deception of that church runs, even in the "Christian" churches, that still uphold many of their doctrines and false teachings.

What you are not doing however is presenting a plausible case for your argument. Many Protestants would agree with your assesment of Rome, however, they do not allow their disdain for the Roman church to dictate their own theology. I think the point could be made furthermore that the JWs are considerably more erroneous than Rome, given the degree to which they abuse their membership, so given the choice between rejecting a doctrine because Rome accepts it or rejecting a doctrine because the JWs accept it, I would side for the latter option. Although either path would be fallacious. I believe in one God despite this being Islamic doctrine.
 
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cgaviria

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What you are not doing however is presenting a plausible case for your argument. Many Protestants would agree with your assesment of Rome, however, they do not allow their disdain for the Roman church to dictate their own theology. I think the point could be made furthermore that the JWs are considerably more erroneous than Rome, given the degree to which they abuse their membership, so given the choice between rejecting a doctrine because Rome accepts it or rejecting a doctrine because the JWs accept it, I would side for the latter option. Although either path would be fallacious. I believe in one God despite this being Islamic doctrine.

Have I not presented scripture to prove everything I've said? Reread everything I've posted. Scripture first, then spiel, back and forth. Half of what I've posted IS scripture, I don't speak my own theology EXCEPT was in is scripture. Of all people in this forum you are the worst, because you are wise in your own eye, and it will be to your folly.
 
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Wgw

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Have I not presented scripture to prove everything I've said? Reread everything I've posted. Scripture first, then spiel, back and forth. Half of what I've posted IS scripture, I don't speak my own theology EXCEPT was in is scripture. Of all people in this forum you are the worst, because you are wise in your own eye, and it will be to your folly.

The problem is that the scripture you have presented does not prove your interpretation. So for example, in your OP you provide an interesting interpretation of the parable, but then go on to reject another more universally rejected interpretarion as not scriptural, owing to its "pagan" "Catholic" origins, which is a logical fallacy. A fallacious argument is not proof; if you had actual proof you would not need to fall back on logical fallacy.
 
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cgaviria

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The problem is that the scripture you have presented does not prove your interpretation. So for example, in your OP you provide an interesting interpretation of the parable, but then go on to reject another more universally rejected interpretarion as not scriptural, owing to its "pagan" "Catholic" origins, which is a logical fallacy. A fallacious argument is not proof; if you had actual proof you would not need to fall back on logical fallacy.

It does actually. Did I open this discussion even mentioning the catholic church? No. I opened it with reasoning on WHY IT IS A PARABLE. I backed it up with plenty of scriptures. Then I went on further interpreting each verse in the parable, going in a pattern of SCRIPTURE first, then my spiel. Then I ended with my conclusion, summarizing EVERYTHING that I just proved and interpreted, BY SCRIPTURE. Then I also made the affirmation that alot of false teaching concerning this matter did in fact origin in the Catholic church. Have you not read the Catechism of the Catholic Church? The teachings of "eternal torment" originate from them. So I have in fact done TWO THINGS HERE. I have ANALYZED SCRIPTURE, I HAVE BROUGHT FORTH MY EVIDENCES BASED ON SCRIPTURE ALONE. And I have put blame where blame is due. JUST BECAUSE I BLAME THE CATHOLIC CHURCH FOR ITS FALLACIES DOES NOT REFUTE THAT EVIDENCES I HAVE BROUGHT FORTH CONCERNING SCRIPTURE.

So buddy....... instead of giving me your endless rant about me blaming the catholic church as a means to discredit all the valid and strong scriptural points I have brought to light, how about give us YOUR "valid" SCRIPTURES on why you oppose what I am saying. So far your strongest point is, "everything you said is wrong because you are blaming the catholic church". Oh is that so? IT DOESN'T MATTER WHO I BLAME. I COULD EVEN BLAME YOUR MOTHER IF SHE TAUGHT YOU INCORRECT DOCTRINE, IT DOESNT REFUTE THESE EVIDENCES THAT I HAVE BROUGHT TO LIGHT.

Again, I CHALLENGE YOU TO PROVIDE SCRIPTURES TO DISPROVE ANYTHING THAT IM SAYING. And lets analyze each scripture. I don't have all the answers, so if you HAVE A SCRIPTURE to refute what I am concerning these SCRIPTURES, then bring it to light, so that we can study it.
 
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Wgw

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It does actually. Did I open this discussion even mentioning the catholic church? No.

Did I say you did? No.

Then I also made the affirmation that alot of false teaching concerning this matter did in fact origin in the Catholic church.

And herein you engaged in both historical error and logical fallacy. I do not object to the non-fallacious and non-erroneous aspects of argument.

Have you not read the Catechism of the Catholic Church? The teachings of "eternal torment" originate from them.

I am not Roman Catholic. So while the answer to that question is "yes" owing to my studies, it is also not a relevant question. Nor does it take into account ecclesiastical history; this doctrine has always been believed in by Eastern christians, who were never Roman Catholic, so you cannot attribute it to them. I suppose to a certain extent you had not counted on the oresence of Orthodox on this forum when beginning your apologetical campaign, in that we by virtue of our mere existence tend to collapse the Catholic/Protestant dichotomy which your arguments seek to exploit.

So I have in fact done TWO THINGS HERE. I have ANALYZED SCRIPTURE, I HAVE BROUGHT FORTH MY EVIDENCES BASED ON SCRIPTURE ALONE. And I have put blame where blame is due. JUST BECAUSE I BLAME THE CATHOLIC CHURCH FOR ITS FALLACIES DOES NOT REFUTE THAT EVIDENCES I HAVE BROUGHT FORTH CONCERNING SCRIPTURE.

Nor indeed did I claim that it did. However, it does adversely affect your overall credibility, in that it shows that you cannot be regarded as being above relying on historical error or logical fallacy.

So buddy....... instead of giving me your endless rant about me blaming the catholic church as a means to discredit all the valid and strong scriptural points I have brought to light, how about give us YOUR "valid" SCRIPTURES on why you oppose what I am saying. So far your strongest point is, "everything you said is wrong because you are blaming the catholic church". Oh is that so? IT DOESN'T MATTER WHO I BLAME. I COULD EVEN BLAME YOUR MOTHER IF SHE TAUGHT YOU INCORRECT DOCTRINE, IT DOESNT REFUTE THESE EVIDENCES THAT I HAVE BROUGHT TO LIGHT.

Again, I CHALLENGE YOU TO PROVIDE SCRIPTURES TO DISPROVE ANYTHING THAT IM SAYING. And lets analyze each scripture. I don't have all the answers, so if you HAVE A SCRIPTURE to refute what I am concerning these SCRIPTURES, then bring it to light, so that we can study it.

Well, to this end, I consider that the very pericope you quote cannot be dismissed as referring to the literal state of the soul after death. Your interpretation of it may be a valid additional layer of meaning, it may not, but what you have not done is provide scripture to prove your argument that only your interpretation of the Rich Man and Lazarus is Correct. I can furthermore reinforce my view with "and the Worm dieth not," et cetera.

Your argument in the OP consists of three parts: an interesting and not altogether implausible secondary interpretation of the pericope, an unsubstantiated claim that the more conventional interpretarions are wrong, and the fallacious claim that they are wrong due to having been passed on to various Christian denominations, through Roman Catholicism, from Paganism.

One interesting point can also be made, that being, that the Pagan conception of the afterlife was sombre and dismal, but not particularly like Hell.
 
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cgaviria

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Did I say you did? No.



And herein you engaged in both historical error and logical fallacy. I do not object to the non-fallacious and non-erroneous aspects of argument.



I am not Roman Catholic. So while the answer to that question is "yes" owing to my studies, it is also not a relevant question. Nor does it take into account ecclesiastical history; this doctrine has always been believed in by Eastern christians, who were never Roman Catholic, so you cannot attribute it to them. I suppose to a certain extent you had not counted on the oresence of Orthodox on this forum when beginning your apologetical campaign, in that we by virtue of our mere existence tend to collapse the Catholic/Protestant dichotomy which your arguments seek to exploit.



Nor indeed did I claim that it did. However, it does adversely affect your overall credibility, in that it shows that you cannot be regarded as being above relying on historical error or logical fallacy.



Well, to this end, I consider that the very pericope you quote cannot be dismissed as referring to the literal state of the soul after death. Your interpretation of it may be a valid additional layer of meaning, it may not, but what you have not done is provide scripture to prove your argument that only your interpretation of the Rich Man and Lazarus is Correct. I can furthermore reinforce my view with "and the Worm dieth not," et cetera.

Your argument in the OP consists of three parts: an interesting and not altogether implausible secondary interpretation of the pericope, an unsubstantiated claim that the more conventional interpretarions are wrong, and the fallacious claim that they are wrong due to having been passed on to various Christian denominations, through Roman Catholicism, from Paganism.

One interesting point can also be made, that being, that the Pagan conception of the afterlife was sombre and dismal, but not particularly like Hell.

Out of all this regurgitation of words, the only thing you quoted FROM SCRIPTURE is "and the Worm dieth not". So thats YOUR BASIS to refute everything I've said? Here is WHY THAT IS INCORRECT, and I'VE ALREADY SAID IT BEFORE AND YOU DIDN'T RESPOND,

Do you believe in immortal worms? That worms won't die in this fire? This verse isn't saying "there will be immortal worms", its saying "there will not be an end to worms" in this place.
 
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Der Alte

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Out of all this regurgitation of words, the only thing you quoted FROM SCRIPTURE is "and the Worm dieth not". So thats YOUR BASIS to refute everything I've said? Here is WHY THAT IS INCORRECT, and I'VE ALREADY SAID IT BEFORE AND YOU DIDN'T RESPOND,

Do you believe in immortal worms? That worms won't die in this fire? This verse isn't saying "there will be immortal worms", its saying "there will not be an end to worms" in this place.

In the book of Isaiah God said the worms did not die. In the NT Jesus said the worms did not die. In neither account does it say "in this place!" If God chooses to keep worms alive forever do you think He can do this? Some people argue that those thrown into the fire would be burned up but I seem to recall two incidents in the OT where fire did not destroy what was thrown into it. Exo 3:2, Dan 3:25
 
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cgaviria

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What you have not done is provided scripture to show how your interpretation of the Lazarus Parable is correct. Nor to show how our interpretarion is incorrect.

You completely ignored my question. Do you believe in immortal worms?
 
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cgaviria

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In the book of Isaiah God said the worms did not die. In the NT Jesus said the worms did not die. In neither account does it say "in this place!" If God chooses to keep worms alive forever do you think He can do this? Some people argue that those thrown into the fire would be burned up but I seem to recall two incidents in the OT where fire did not destroy what was thrown into it. Exo 3:2, Dan 3:25

God is able to create a tooth fairy if he pleases, but saying anything is possible with God isn't a correct logic to support your view on this scripture, and besides that, where in scripture do we even read about animals being immortal? It's ludicrous. This scripture isn't saying there will be immortal worms, its saying "there will not be an end to worms" in this place.
 
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