Non-Trinitarianism is unscriptural

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Butch5

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On this point, what you are basically doing is attempting to sneak a semi-Arian interpretarion past the Nicene Creed through eisegesis, while explicitly accusing us of Sabellianism. In response to this, I urge you to read the Panarion of St. Epiphanius of Salamis, the fourth century Nicene father who addresses carefully these various errors (you will need both volumes). As far as your assumption that I prefer the Athanasian Creed to the Nicene, this is simply false, the Athanasian is wordy, pseudepipgraphical and in most if not all English renderings contains the filioque.

Now to clarify on the Modalist error of Sabellius, this is essentially the conceit that there is one person of the Trinity who functions variously as Father, Son and Holy Ghost deoending on context, age or dispensation. It is as grave an error as the Arian views which I have spent this thread addressing; in modern times it is chiefly associated with the Oneness Pentecostals.

I'm not sneaking anything into anything. The Nicene creed states plainly, "I believe in one God the Father." It seems to me that you are intentionally avoiding this fact. It also seems to me that you believe in one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, is that correct? That is NOT what the creed says and it is NOT what the Scriptures teach. Paul, when writing to the Corinthians said,

Now as touching things offered unto idols, we know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffeth up, but charity edifieth.
2 And if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know.
3 But if any man love God, the same is known of him.
4 As concerning therefore the eating of those things that are offered in sacrifice unto idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is none other God but one.
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. (1 Cor. 8:1-6 KJV)

The Nicene creed is pretty much quoting Paul in it's opening line. Paul didn't say, to us there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. You didn't address my question. The creed acknowledges Jesus as God and yet it states, "I believe in one God, the Father." This is either a contradiction or the phrase, "I believe in one God, the Father," means something other than a numerical account. The solution to this question explains the Trinity as understood by the Anti-Nicene Christians.

Regarding, the Nicene writers, I don't really put much stock in what they say simply because there weren't there in the beginning and much error entered the Church after it merged with the State. I rely on the Ante_Nicene writers who were closer to the source, some had actual contact with the apostles, and many died for their faith.
 
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Wgw

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I'm not sneaking anything into anything. The Nicene creed states plainly, "I believe in one God the Father." It seems to me that you are intentionally avoiding this fact. It also seems to me that you believe in one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, is that correct? That is NOT what the creed says and it is NOT what the Scriptures teach. Paul, when writing to the Corinthians said,

Now as touching things offered unto idols, we know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffeth up, but charity edifieth.
2 And if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know.
3 But if any man love God, the same is known of him.
4 As concerning therefore the eating of those things that are offered in sacrifice unto idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is none other God but one.
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. (1 Cor. 8:1-6 KJV)

The Nicene creed is pretty much quoting Paul in it's opening line. Paul didn't say, to us there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. You didn't address my question. The creed acknowledges Jesus as God and yet it states, "I believe in one God, the Father." This is either a contradiction or the phrase, "I believe in one God, the Father," means something other than a numerical account. The solution to this question explains the Trinity as understood by the Anti-Nicene Christians.

Regarding, the Nicene writers, I don't really put much stock in what they say simply because there weren't there in the beginning and much error entered the Church after it merged with the State. I rely on the Ante_Nicene writers who were closer to the source, some had actual contact with the apostles, and many died for their faith.

On this point, despite your pleas to the contrary, what you are in fact trying to do is pass off a theology contrary to Nicea as Nicene, while engaging in a subtle swipe at the Nicene Fathers on the basis of their supposed ignorance compared to their predeccessors. Which shows that in fact your real objective is to confuse, degrade and debase the Nicene Creed, by applying eisegesis to it and ignoring the Acts of the Council of Nicea, the writings of St. Athanasius et cetera, to essentially support your position, which is semi-Arianism.

You ignore "homoousios" and "very God of very God" in an attempt to falsely show on the basis of "I believe in one God" that the Nicene Creed somehow refutes the Trinity.
 
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Butch5

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On this point, despite your pleas to the contrary, what you are in fact trying to do is pass off a theology contrary to Nicea as Nicene, while engaging in a subtle swipe at the Nicene Fathers on the basis of their supposed ignorance compared to their predeccessors. Which shows that in fact your real objective is to confuse, degrade and debase the Nicene Creed, by applying eisegesis to it and ignoring the Acts of the Council of Nicea, the writings of St. Athanasius et cetera, to essentially support your position, which is semi-Arianism.

You ignore "homoousios" and "very God of very God" in an attempt to falsely show on the basis of "I believe in one God" that the Nicene Creed somehow refutes the Trinity.

I'm sorry, but I'm not buying your nonsense. I haven't tried to pass off anything. I simply posted what the Nicene creed and Scriptures say. I would submit that it is you that is trying to pass something off by not defining your terms. I've asked you to define your terms and you haven't. I've asked you who is God, you said, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Then I asked you how is there one God. You started talking about a divine essence which you wouldn't define. An essence is the attributes or properties of something. It's not a thing in and of itself. They you said the three proposa were distinct yet not separate, yet if they're distinct they cannot be one.

This vagueness let's you denounce other's views without letting your's be nailed down, thus effectively moving the goal post when you view is challenged. However, the fact of the matter is that your view is a logical contradiction. The Scriptures refer to God as "He" not "it". Thus God is a being not a divine essence. It's quite obvious that one being cannot consist of three other beings or persons. Your view doesn't even fit with the Nicene creed as it says, "I believe in one God, the Father'. And contrary to your claim, I have repeatedly, not only acknowledged, but pointed out that the creed also acknowledges that Jesus is God. Twice now I've presented you with the question of resolving that and you've ignored it both times. If you want to understand the Trinity as understood in the Nicene creed I 'd suggest reading the Anti-Nicene writers who came up with it rather than Nicene writers, many of whom held the Augustinian view of the Trinity as espoused in the Anthansian creed.
 
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Wgw

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I'm sorry, but I'm not buying your nonsense. I haven't tried to pass off anything. I simply posted what the Nicene creed and Scriptures say. I would submit that it is you that is trying to pass something off by not defining your terms. I've asked you to define your terms and you haven't. I've asked you who is God, you said, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Then I asked you how is there one God. You started talking about a divine essence which you wouldn't define. An essence is the attributes or properties of something. It's not a thing in and of itself. They you said the three proposa were distinct yet not separate, yet if they're distinct they cannot be one.

Belief in a divine essence that defies cataphatic attempts at explanation is dogmatic in the Orthodox Church. However, it may help to note that "ousios" of the creed is understood as "essence." I suggest you take a look at St. John of Damascus or indeed for a somewhat apophatic look at the essence, St. (psuedo) Dionysius the Aereopagite.

Nowhere by the way would I ever argue that there is only one prosopon. There are three, and they are united according to essence and ontology; they constitute one Godhood, one God in three persons, not divided into three persons or distributed amongst, nor three Gods functioning as a committee (although SF author Robert A. Heinlein made an amusing quip along those lines).

Separation is different from distinction. If you are happily married, you are not separate from your wife, but you are a distinct prosopon. The unity of the Holy Trinity is infinitely more potent than even the most blissful and harmonious of marriages.

This vagueness let's you denounce other's views without letting your's be nailed down, thus effectively moving the goal post when you view is challenged.

On the contrary, at no point have I moved the goalposts. According to Orthodox theology, we cannot understand the divine essence, and certain questions regarding the inner workings of God are simply unamswerable. You are seeking a comprehensible definition of the incomprehensible, which will invariably result in some form of anthropomorphological error due to the epistemological limitations of humanity itself.

This vagueness let's you denounce other's views without letting your's be nailed down, thus effectively moving the goal post when you view is challenged. However, the fact of the matter is that your view is a logical contradiction. The Scriptures refer to God as "He" not "it". Thus God is a being not a divine essence.

I have not argued that the Divine Essence is God; if you have misread my posts as suggesting the Divine Essence is somehow God and the prosopa are mere attributes but not God per se, then this is a clear error. I should never dream of referring to God as an "it"; this would smack of the worst excesses of deism.

It's quite obvious that one being cannot consist of three other beings or persons.

Which is not the view of Nicene Christianity, in that the persons of the Trinity are not "three other beings or persons" constituting "one being."

Your view doesn't even fit with the Nicene creed as it says, "I believe in one God, the Father'. And contrary to your claim, I have repeatedly, not only acknowledged, but pointed out that the creed also acknowledges that Jesus is God. Twice now I've presented you with the question of resolving that and you've ignored it both times.

What you are making is a nebulous accusation to the effect that God the Father is somehow more God than Jesus Christ, or to be more precise, when we say "One God" we are referring to the Father specifically and not to our Lord. This is a gross distortion of the Nicene position; it is semi-Arian and is contrary to co-essentiality (homoousios).

If you want to understand the Trinity as understood in the Nicene creed I 'd suggest reading the Anti-Nicene writers who came up with it rather than Nicene writers, many of whom held the Augustinian view of the Trinity as espoused in the Anthansian creed.

Let us review the history of the Creed. In the early fourth century, Arius, a priest in the Church of Alexandria, dared claim that Jesus Christ was a creature, that he was of different essence from the Father, God according to honour but not ontology, et cetera. St. Alexander of Alexandria, and his deacon and chosen successor St. Athanasius the Great, objected vehemently to this position. After some controvery, the Council of Nicea was convened by St. Constantine to avoid Arianism spilling over into armed conflict (which it later did). This council sided with Ss. Alexander and Athanasius; St. Nicholas famously slugged Arius and was rebuked, the initial Nicene Creed was adopted.

Then, St. Constantine reposed, but not before the insiduous Arian Eusebius of Nicomedia worked his way into the Imperial Court. The persecution of Nicene Christians began under Emperor Constantius. More confusion occurred due to the emergence of semi-Arianism, which posed that Jesus Christ was of "like essence" to the Father, and Macedonianism or Pneumatomachianism, which denied the divinity of the Holy Spirit. In addition, an attack against the humanity of our Lord came in the form of Apollinarianism, which in effect states that our Lord occupied or controlled a human body but did not have a human soul.

The Cappadocians (St. Basil, St. Gregory Nazianzus, and St. Gregory of Nyassa) along with the ageing St. Athanasius were among the main opponents of these views. St. Athanasius and St. Basil had reposed by the time of the Council of Constantinople, but St. Gregory the Theologian was alive, and in ill health. He initially presided at the council, later stepped down, however, the revised creed adopted essentislly reflected his concerns as well as those of the other Cappadocians, St. Athanasius, et al.

The creeds must be understood as refutations of fourth century heresy; they were composed in response to fourth century errors by fourth century fathers, which were not the same errors that were contended with by the likes of Ss. Irenaeus or Hippolytus.

Now, the later work by St. Augustine of Hippo on the Trinity is useful, however, it did not shape Orthodox doctrinal definitions in the mannero of the writings of St. Athanasius and the Cappadocians. St. Augustine is relatively minor in the Eastern churches, some even deny his sainthood; his works tend to be regarded as controversial, and he is chiefly remembered for somewhat overstating the case against Pelagius, in contrast to the more subtle argument by St. John Cassian.

The Athanasian Creed is of unknown origin; no one really attributes it to St. Athanasius, and it is barely used in the Eastern Churches; my own church, the Syriac Orthodox Patriarchate of Antioch, does not use it. That said, to the extent it agrees with our view I cannot fault it. To say it is opposed to the Nicene position however is obviously wrong given its historic importance in Roman Catholicism, Anglicanism et cetera.

You are mistaken however is that you seem to regard that document as having shaped the Eastern perspective, alpng with St. Augustine, when this is simply false.
 
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Imagican

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By this same argument, as has been pointed out, "ONE SINGLE LINE" (a strange expression in relationship to the Bible) should be enough to disprove non-Trinitarianism. Of course, unlike some members, I do not do eisegesis. That said, my point in the OP that non-Trinitarianism is basically incompatible with John 1 is once again shown to be true, in that here, you propose that the literal reading of John 1:1 is inferior to a literal reading of other verses according to an implicit hierarchy. The fallacy of your position is shown by expressing it, sans rhetoric, as "If any verse contradicts the literal interpretation of John 1:1, then John 1:1 is misinterpreted, whereas if John 1:1 contradicts a literal interpretation of any other verse, then John 1:1 is wrong."

Untrue and you KNOW it. It would be impossible for ONE line of the Bible to disprove a NON belief in a man made concept. That is an utterly ludicrous concept in an of itself.

And we have NEVER been instructed to BASE doctrine on ANY 'one line' of the Bible. As far as TRUTH is concerned, we've been instructed to compare ALL lines to ALL OTHERS to find proper understanding.

What I stated is 'IF Christ was 'created', then this plainly illustrates that the interpretation of John 1 CAN'T be correct for those that INSIST that by simply adding a capital "W" to word makes the Word Christ instead of what we are actually offered. In the BEGINNING was God's Word. And what have we been offered in Genesis? God SPEAKING His Word in the BEGINNING, "Let there be LIGHT". Speaking HIS WORD.

Then LATER in the words offered by John did the Word become FLESH and dwelt among us.

The words you are reading right now are MY words. Or, 'my word'.

Christ openly stated that the words HE offered us were NOT HIS OWN, but GIVEN Him by the Father.

No different than me handing someone something, (giving it to them), to deliver to someone else. It NEVER really BELONGS to the person chosen to deliver it except throughout the TIME it takes between being sent and it being delivered.

This concept in and of itself shows a DIFFERENT definition of the "Word" of God mentioned in the beginning of the Gospel of John.


This entire post demonstrates the dangers of special pleading, eisegesis and logical inconsistency. It simply plays into my argument.

It will play into it even more if you intended to argue John 1:1 is mistranslated from the Greek, since not only is this false, but it also spectacularly proves my point that John 1:1 refutes non-Trinitarianism.

Only in YOUR OWN interpretation and that of others that view in the same manner. Not ONCE in the words you quote is the concept of 'trinity' offered. The Holy Spirit isn't even mentioned as a separate PERSON of the 'Trinity'. Only God and His Son.

So the words of John certainly don't REFUTE 'non trinitarianism'. If anything, they refute 'trinity' itself. Attempting to use them as PROOF of 'trinity' is like trying to prove Jesus is God by uttering the words, "Before Abraham, I am".


And you haven't ONCE heard ME make any attempts whatsoever to indicate that the WORDS offered in the Bible were Mis TRANSLATED. I was speaking of misinterpretation. In other words, the MEANING of the words offered being misrepresented or misunderstood. Not an error in translation from Greek to English.

There are MANY such misinterpretations made by the 'churches'. Even commentaries who follow teachings of the 'churches' have often offered MISinterpretation of MUCH of the Bible. And it is JUST such confusion or lack of proper interpretation that, in my opinion, has made it possible for there to BE 'so many DIFFERENT 'churches'.

While John 1 may indeed SOUND like it's speaking of The Word of God BEING Christ, it certainly doesn't SAY IT. It must be ASSUMED according to WHAT one is LOOKING for.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Imagican

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Given that you want intelligent discussion, why is it that you always go out of your way to be offensive when posting about the Trinity, referring always to the concept/belief as "trinity" (in quotes for no apparent reason, without the customary modifying article, and uncapitalized)?

I think that in most instances, you understand the words that I offer regardless of spelling or punctuation. It's not MEANT to be offensive, just a method of showing that I do not conform to such man made tradition or doctrine or whatever one may choose to call it. If that's offensive, then one who is offended must have learned to be from their 'church' that taught them to find NON belief in 'trinity' to be offensive. I certainly don't find the capitalization of the word offensive.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Wgw

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The Holy Spirit isn't even mentioned as a separate PERSON of the 'Trinity'. Only God and His Son.

Ah, pneumatomachianism. I wondered when that would come up.

So the words of John certainly don't REFUTE 'non trinitarianism'. If anything, they refute 'trinity' itself. Attempting to use them as PROOF of 'trinity' is like trying to prove Jesus is God by uttering the words, "Before Abraham, I am".

In other words, attempting to use the words of John works. Which is rather more than can be said for the non-Trinitarian attempts at exegesis.

And you haven't ONCE heard ME make any attempts whatsoever to indicate that the WORDS offered in the Bible were Mis TRANSLATED. I was speaking of misinterpretation. In other words, the MEANING of the words offered being misrepresented or misunderstood. Not an error in translation from Greek to English.

I assumed you meant "misinterpreted," however, you did literallu write "mistranslated" and thus I needed to pre-empt such an argument.

There are MANY such misinterpretations made by the 'churches'. Even commentaries who follow teachings of the 'churches' have often offered MISinterpretation of MUCH of the Bible. And it is JUST such confusion or lack of proper interpretation that, in my opinion, has made it possible for there to BE 'so many DIFFERENT 'churches'.

Much interpretation rests on subjective opinion. However, until the Council of Ephesus, there was no real division in the Church; there was simply the Church, and various heretical and schismatic sects that can be categorized broadly speaking as Gnostic, Arian, Montanist, et cetera.

While John 1 may indeed SOUND like it's speaking of The Word of God BEING Christ, it certainly doesn't SAY IT. It must be ASSUMED according to WHAT one is LOOKING for.

Actually John 1:6-14 make it quite crystal clear that it is talking about our Lord.
 
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Wgw

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I think that in most instances, you understand the words that I offer regardless of spelling or punctuation. It's not MEANT to be offensive, just a method of showing that I do not conform to such man made tradition or doctrine or whatever one may choose to call it. If that's offensive, then one who is offended must have learned to be from their 'church' that taught them to find NON belief in 'trinity' to be offensive. I certainly don't find the capitalization of the word offensive.

Blessings,

MEC

The reality is several aspects of your posting style are needlessly bellicose. I am not an Arian; I regard Arius as a heresiarch, but I do not spell his name as Arius, nor do you see me referring to the Unitarian Universalists as a 'church' nor otherwise acting in a particularly demeaning manner. Essentially, the problem that @Albion alludes to in his post is that your posting style is rather, for want of a better word, abrasive, particularly your aggressive use of capitalization to emphasize various words. You would be more persuasive if you followed Albion's advice, frankly; when it comes to posting style, he is one of the most adept members, and I say this as someone who vehemently disagrees with much of what he has to say. i consider him quite wrong on many issues, but can regard him as a colleague and enjoy a collegial relationship with him due to the articulate and considerate manner in which he presents his case.

So, for example, Albion has never mocked my church by outting the name Orthodox in quotation marks. He has never, in our disagreements, resorted to capitalization, or imougned my rational faculties. And I respect him, and his views, for this reason.

One thing I actually rather like about historic Unitarian Christians in the UK, US, and Transylvania is that they are not known for being at all personally nasty to Trinitarians, nor indeed did they ever have such a reputation.
 
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Imagican

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You know, after quite many years of reading the Bible, I have come to understand that there is MUCH of it offered that is NOT MEANT to be interpreted as LITERAL.

Much of it is written like poetry, then there are parables. And then EACH author of each book have their own 'style'.

Like when Christ states that he who has seen Him has seen the Father or seen God.

If that is true, then when Christ states that NO MAN has EVER seen God at ANY TIME would be a LIE.

So it's not meant to be interpreted LITERALLY. It's meant to portray a DIFFERENT understanding.

We usually accept a representative AS THE representative of he who sent the representative.

So in essence, the words offered mean that what those had SEEN of Christ, (his behavior and the words He offered, the miracles He performed), were REPRESENTATIVE of Him who SENT Him.

But there are those that insist that the words were MEANT to be taken literal. But to DO so would be to point out CONTRADICTION in the very words of Christ Himself.

The words offered in the first chapter of the Gospel of John were NOT meant to form NEW doctrine. All John basically offered was a condensed version of 'creation' and the relationship of God with mankind. I'd be willing to BET if he had KNOWN how his words would be alter in interpretation he certainly would have offered them in a DIFFERENT manner.

For how bizarre would that be. Out of the BLUE, without any introduction, John STARTS his Gospel by trying to pass on the understanding that Jesus is GOD. But the rest of His Gospel plainly illustrates this to be UNTRUE? Of course not. No part of the Bible is offered in such a manner.

God spoke existence into being THROUGH His Word. From my understanding, He spoke His Son into existence. So capitalizing the word doesn't MAKE it a proper noun except in the minds of whoever capitalized it. Take the capital away and THEN read what is offered.

Blessings,

MEC
 
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Job8

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Aha, there it is. More proof of my point that non-Trinitarianism is incompatible with a literal understanding of the unaltered text of John 1:1-14.
Anyone who reads the unaltered text of John 1:1-14 in its plain literal sense with the understanding that this is Divine revelation about Christ must conclude (a) that *the Word* (Logos) was and is God, and (b) that *the Word* is distinct from God the Father (who is generally referred to in the NT simply as "God").

Many other passages confirm that Christ is God the Son as well as the Creator (see Hebrews 1:1-14). So there are at least two Divine Persons within the Godhead. When we further study the Holy Spirit, we discover that He too is God (Acts 5:1-11). And when we look at Matthew 28:19, we find that "the Name" (of God) refers to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. That is conclusive evidence for those who wish to handle Scripture honestly. For those who do not, nothing will suffice. And God tells us to leave them alone. Those who choose darkness receive more darkness, whereas those who chose light receive more light (Jn 3:18-21).
 
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Wgw

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Anyone who reads the unaltered text of John 1:1-14 in its plain literal sense with the understanding that this is Divine revelation about Christ must conclude (a) that *the Word* (Logos) was and is God, and (b) that *the Word* is distinct from God the Father (who is generally referred to in the NT as "God".

Many other passages confirm that Christ is God the Son as well as the Creator (see Hebrews 1:1-14). So there are at least two Divine Persons within the Godhead. When we further study the Holy Spirit, we discover that He too is God (Acts 5:1-11). And when we look at Matthew 28:19, we find that "the Name" (of God) refers to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. That is conclusive evidence for those who wish to handle Scripture honestly. For those who do not, nothing will suffice. And God tells us to leave them alone. Those who choose darkness receive more darkness, whereas those who chose light receive more light (Jn 3:18-21).

Quite right you are. I suppose by the way since this thread is now tilting towards pneumatomachianism we should bring out the verses in defense of the divinity of the Spirit. In so doing, I expect the non-Trinitarians will attempt to use some references, for example, in Proverbs, to attempt to reject the divinity of the Lord, which they attempted unsuccessfully to use previously.

I feel my case that rejection of the divinity of the Lord, set out in the OP, is incompatible with a literal exegesis of John 1:1-14, has been definitely proven, due to very excellent posts on the subject by yourself and other members. So I want to thank you for your contributions in this manner.
 
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Butch5

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Belief in a divine essence that defies cataphatic attempts at explanation is dogmatic in the Orthodox Church. However, it may help to note that "ousios" of the creed is understood as "essence." I suggest you take a look at St. John of Damascus or indeed for a somewhat apophatic look at the essence, St. (psuedo) Dionysius the Aereopagite.


That doesn't mean it can't be understood. The problem is people trying to fit the Scriptures into their theology. It happens all the time.



Nowhere by the way would I ever argue that there is only one prosopon. There are three, and they are united according to essence and ontology; they constitute one Godhood, one God in three persons, not divided into three persons or distributed amongst, nor three Gods functioning as a committee (although SF author Robert A. Heinlein made an amusing quip along those lines).


This sounds like it's straight out of the Anthanasian creed. It's not one Deity in three persons, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are all Deity, they are not the same being. The Father is Deity, as is the Son, as is the Spirit. They all have the same essence. Neither the Scriptures nor the Nicene creed refer to the Holy Spirit as a person. However the sake of argument will say the Spirit is. That would make three persons all of the same essence.



Separation is different from distinction. If you are happily married, you are not separate from your wife, but you are a distinct prosopon. The unity of the Holy Trinity is infinitely more potent than even the most blissful and harmonious of marriages.


And my wife and I aren't one. You said one God in three persons and the person were distinct. They can't one and distinct.


On the contrary, at no point have I moved the goalposts. According to Orthodox theology, we cannot understand the divine essence, and certain questions regarding the inner workings of God are simply unamswerable. You are seeking a comprehensible definition of the incomprehensible, which will invariably result in some form of anthropomorphological error due to the epistemological limitations of humanity itself.


Just because some Nicene writers didn't understand the Trinity doesn't mean no one can. The Ante-Nicene writers didn't seem to have so much trouble. You see, the problem comes from the merging of church and state. After the council the church lost it's way.


I have not argued that the Divine Essence is God; if you have misread my posts as suggesting the Divine Essence is somehow God and the prosopa are mere attributes but not God per se, then this is a clear error. I should never dream of referring to God as an "it"; this would smack of the worst excesses of deism.

In post 319 you said, "On this point we can distinguish between the divine essence, and the persons of the Holy Trinity, which are revealed explicitly." In post 315 you said,


”We know of God only through his revealed attributes, prosopa or energies, we do not know nor can we claim to know the divine essence.


Here you refer to God using the personal pronoun "his". Personal pronouns are used of living beings. Please explain how a living being can consist of persons.





Which is not the view of Nicene Christianity, in that the persons of the Trinity are not "three other beings or persons" constituting "one being."


Yet you won't define what they are.




What you are making is a nebulous accusation to the effect that God the Father is somehow more God than Jesus Christ, or to be more precise, when we say "One God" we are referring to the Father specifically and not to our Lord. This is a gross distortion of the Nicene position; it is semi-Arian and is contrary to co-essentiality (homoousios).


The Father is God. Jesus is God in essence. Suppose a king has a son. That son is equally human with the king, however, the son is not the king. He is equal with the king only in essence. He is not equal in authority, order, or personal attributes. I'm not making a nebulous accusation, I am stating it plainly. That "IS" Nicene theology. What you are proposing is not Nicene theology but rather Anthanasian theology. Jesus Himself said that the Father was great than He was. He also said that the Father is the "only true God."

Let us review the history of the Creed. In the early fourth century, Arius, a priest in the Church of Alexandria, dared claim that Jesus Christ was a creature, that he was of different essence from the Father, God according to honour but not ontology, et cetera. St. Alexander of Alexandria, and his deacon and chosen successor St. Athanasius the Great, objected vehemently to this position. After some controvery, the Council of Nicea was convened by St. Constantine to avoid Arianism spilling over into armed conflict (which it later did). This council sided with Ss. Alexander and Athanasius; St. Nicholas famously slugged Arius and was rebuked, the initial Nicene Creed was adopted.

Then, St. Constantine reposed, but not before the insiduous Arian Eusebius of Nicomedia worked his way into the Imperial Court. The persecution of Nicene Christians began under Emperor Constantius. More confusion occurred due to the emergence of semi-Arianism, which posed that Jesus Christ was of "like essence" to the Father, and Macedonianism or Pneumatomachianism, which denied the divinity of the Holy Spirit. In addition, an attack against the humanity of our Lord came in the form of Apollinarianism, which in effect states that our Lord occupied or controlled a human body but did not have a human soul.

The Cappadocians (St. Basil, St. Gregory Nazianzus, and St. Gregory of Nyassa) along with the ageing St. Athanasius were among the main opponents of these views. St. Athanasius and St. Basil had reposed by the time of the Council of Constantinople, but St. Gregory the Theologian was alive, and in ill health. He initially presided at the council, later stepped down, however, the revised creed adopted essentislly reflected his concerns as well as those of the other Cappadocians, St. Athanasius, et al.

The creeds must be understood as refutations of fourth century heresy; they were composed in response to fourth century errors by fourth century fathers, which were not the same errors that were contended with by the likes of Ss. Irenaeus or Hippolytus.

Now, the later work by St. Augustine of Hippo on the Trinity is useful, however, it did not shape Orthodox doctrinal definitions in the mannero of the writings of St. Athanasius and the Cappadocians. St. Augustine is relatively minor in the Eastern churches, some even deny his sainthood; his works tend to be regarded as controversial, and he is chiefly remembered for somewhat overstating the case against Pelagius, in contrast to the more subtle argument by St. John Cassian.

The Athanasian Creed is of unknown origin; no one really attributes it to St. Athanasius, and it is barely used in the Eastern Churches; my own church, the Syriac Orthodox Patriarchate of Antioch, does not use it. That said, to the extent it agrees with our view I cannot fault it. To say it is opposed to the Nicene position however is obviously wrong given its historic importance in Roman Catholicism, Anglicanism et cetera.

You are mistaken however is that you seem to regard that document as having shaped the Eastern perspective, alpng with St. Augustine, when this is simply false.

Augustine has had a huge influence on Western Christianity and it is his views that are espoused in the Anthanaisan Creed. The Anthanasian creed contains logical contradicitons. It seems quite clear to me that whoever authored it was attempting to reconcile things they didn't understand, thus the logical contradictions.


I'm not sure why you gave this history above as the Nicene creed reflects the understanding of what was believed before it, not after it.[/quote]
 
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Wgw

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You know, after quite many years of reading the Bible, I have come to understand that there is MUCH of it offered that is NOT MEANT to be interpreted as LITERAL.

Apparently only those parts you disagree with. You throw a literal interpretation of "call no man father" in the face of Orthodox, Catholic, Anglican and Assyrian members, which would also preclude referring to someone as "dad, teacher, doctor, professor" while insisting John 1:1-14, which refutes your perspectives, cannot be taken literally.

Like when Christ states that he who has seen Him has seen the Father or seen God.

If that is true, then when Christ states that NO MAN has EVER seen God at ANY TIME would be a LIE.

On the contrary, from an Orthodox perspective, we can easily reconcile a literal reading of these passages. Because our Lord is a perfect icon of the Father, if we see Him we see the Father; whereas no human can see or understand God in His essence. So what we see when we gaze upon an icon of the Lord is an icon of the Father according to the uncreated divine energies, whereas the divine essence is invisible. Other denominations might well have alternative perspectives, but I regard the essence/energies distinction as an exceedingly useful tool (increasingly popular among Western Christians as well) for utterly vanquishing certain types of vexatious arguments that play upon what might otherwise be regarded as paradoxical or contradictory statements.

The words offered in the first chapter of the Gospel of John were NOT meant to form NEW doctrine. All John basically offered was a condensed version of 'creation' and the relationship of God with mankind. I'd be willing to BET if he had KNOWN how his words would be alter in interpretation he certainly would have offered them in a DIFFERENT manner.

Thus, not only do you reject a literal interpretation, but with your somewhat irreverant supposition, reject divine inspiration by denying the divine providence in the choice of words by St. John.

For how bizarre would that be. Out of the BLUE, without any introduction, John STARTS his Gospel by trying to pass on the understanding that Jesus is GOD. But the rest of His Gospel plainly illustrates this to be UNTRUE? Of course not. No part of the Bible is offered in such a manner.

You might well have a point if the rest of the Gospel of John did suggest that John 1:1-14 is untrue. However, it does not, as many members have shown. Trinitarianism does not rest on eisegesis but on exegesis; John 1:1-14 is not the sole scriptural evidence as to the divinity of our Lord but is rather only a part of a large number of verses which attest to this. In fact, in General Theology, I frequently encounter Protestants who accept unquestionably the divinity of our Lord but who are not extremey familiar with John 1:1-14; it is not the first verse that springs to mind. The Christian who is a pious member of the church, who has been baptized and received the Holy Spirit, and who partakes in the Eucharistic fellowship of Communion or the Lord's Supper, owing to the grace posessed by the Church, instinctively accepts the divinity of Christ, not owing to indoctrination, but rather, due to the fact, and I do say fact here, not opinion that it is self-evident in the scriptural text.

An esoteric, mystical, non-literal interpretation is in fact required in order to reject it, as this thread shows.


God spoke existence into being THROUGH His Word. From my understanding, He spoke His Son into existence. So capitalizing the word doesn't MAKE it a proper noun except in the minds of whoever capitalized it. Take the capital away and THEN read what is offered.

It is a proper noun in the sense that it is a descriptive name, based on the word "Word", for the Lord, in the same sense that the Tetragrammaton means "I AM that I AM;" all divine names are descriptive, in fact. "The Most High God," "God With Us," "I AM that I AM Saves," "the Annointed," and so on.
 
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Wgw

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I should begin by pointing out that it is Athanasian, A-t-h, and not "Anthanasian."

That doesn't mean it can't be understood. The problem is people trying to fit the Scriptures into their theology. It happens all the time.

We can understand God in His essence according to what the divine essence is not, roughly speaking, whereas a cataphatic explanation is more elusive.

This sounds like it's straight out of the Anthanasian creed. It's not one Deity in three persons, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are all Deity, they are not the same being. The Father is Deity, as is the Son, as is the Spirit. They all have the same essence. Neither the Scriptures nor the Nicene creed refer to the Holy Spirit as a person. However the sake of argument will say the Spirit is. That would make three persons all of the same essence.

There is one God, precisely one God, in three persons. This is the view taught by the Nicene Fathers, this is the view expressed in the creed, this is the view believed in by all of the ancient Christians, and not on account of either St. Augustine or the so-called Athanasian Creed.

The Creed itself rejects your crypto-pneumatomachianism by referring to the Spirit as "Lord." See also the writings of St. Ephraim the Syrian, et cetera.

The Father is God. Jesus is God in essence. Suppose a king has a son. That son is equally human with the king, however, the son is not the king. He is equal with the king only in essence. He is not equal in authority, order, or personal attributes. I'm not making a nebulous accusation, I am stating it plainly. That "IS" Nicene theology. What you are proposing is not Nicene theology but rather Anthanasian theology. Jesus Himself said that the Father was great than He was. He also said that the Father is the "only true God."
Athanasian theology is Nicene Theology; the most definitive exegesis of the original creed of 325 AD is his work De Incarnatione. St. Athanasius also defined the NT canon we now use in his 39th Paschal Encyclical. Whether or not Quincunque Vult was authored by him, or not, is another matter.

Augustine has had a huge influence on Western Christianity and it is his views that are espoused in the Anthanaisan Creed. The Anthanasian creed contains logical contradicitons. It seems quite clear to me that whoever authored it was attempting to reconcile things they didn't understand, thus the logical contradictions.

I'm not sure why you gave this history above as the Nicene creed reflects the understanding of what was believed before it, not after it.

The Athanasian Creed as it is used in the West, with the exception of the filioque, accurately conveys the Nicene position.

In providing a history of the creed, I have sought to demonstrate how your position that the Nicene Fathers are less important in understanding it than their predeccessors, is misguided. In one case, a doctrinal shift did occur; St. Irenaeus and several other ante-Nicene fathers were chiliasts, whereas the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed specifically rules out chiliasm.
 
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Wgw

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I should begin by pointing out that it is Athanasian, A-t-h, and not "Anthanasian."

That doesn't mean it can't be understood. The problem is people trying to fit the Scriptures into their theology. It happens all the time.

We can understand God in His essence according to what the divine essence is not, roughly speaking, whereas a cataphatic explanation is more elusive.

This sounds like it's straight out of the Anthanasian creed. It's not one Deity in three persons, The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are all Deity, they are not the same being. The Father is Deity, as is the Son, as is the Spirit. They all have the same essence. Neither the Scriptures nor the Nicene creed refer to the Holy Spirit as a person. However the sake of argument will say the Spirit is. That would make three persons all of the same essence.

There is one God, precisely one God, in three persons. This is the view taught by the Nicene Fathers, this is the view expressed in the creed, this is the view believed in by all of the ancient Christians, and not on account of either St. Augustine or the so-called Athanasian Creed.

The Creed itself rejects your crypto-pneumatomachianism by referring to the Spirit as "Lord." See also the writings of St. Ephraim the Syrian, et cetera.

The Father is God. Jesus is God in essence. Suppose a king has a son. That son is equally human with the king, however, the son is not the king. He is equal with the king only in essence. He is not equal in authority, order, or personal attributes. I'm not making a nebulous accusation, I am stating it plainly. That "IS" Nicene theology. What you are proposing is not Nicene theology but rather Anthanasian theology. Jesus Himself said that the Father was great than He was. He also said that the Father is the "only true God."
Athanasian theology is Nicene Theology; the most definitive exegesis of the original creed of 325 AD is his work De Incarnatione. St. Athanasius also defined the NT canon we now use in his 39th Paschal Encyclical. Whether or not Quincunque Vult was authored by him, or not, is another matter.

Augustine has had a huge influence on Western Christianity and it is his views that are espoused in the Anthanaisan Creed. The Anthanasian creed contains logical contradicitons. It seems quite clear to me that whoever authored it was attempting to reconcile things they didn't understand, thus the logical contradictions.

I'm not sure why you gave this history above as the Nicene creed reflects the understanding of what was believed before it, not after it.

The Athanasian Creed as it is used in the West, with the exception of the filioque, accurately conveys the Nicene position.

In providing a history of the creed, I have sought to demonstrate how your position that the Nicene Fathers are less important in understanding it than their predeccessors, is misguided. In one case, a doctrinal shift did occur; St. Irenaeus and several other ante-Nicene fathers were chiliasts, whereas the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed specifically rules out chiliasm.
 
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Here you make the grave error of confusing eisegesis with a literal interpretation. We know, from John 1:14, that the Word refers to Jesus Christ; "Logos" is a revealed name which connects our Lord with OT prophecy and helps us understand the relationship between Father and Son, through analogy (consider that a Thought is logically the father or precursor of a Word).

If we read John 1:1-14 in isolation or opposition to the text, we might erroneously misread it as suggesting a divine, incarnate and uncreated Bible. However when we read this exegetically, the actual meaning becomes clear.

Your argument here is simply a red herring to divert our attention from your non-literal interpretation of this section and your eisegesis of other passages. I fear that you are under the misconception that literal exegesis means "spiritual or non literal" whereas eisegesis is a "literal reading." * * *

I thought I might interject a little historical evidence of how the Jews understood "the Word."

John was a simple Jewish fisherman, not a Greek philosopher, therefore his understanding of God and the Logos i.e. Word, would be Jewish, not Greek.

Here from the Jewish Encyclopedia, part of the article on “Memra.” מאמר/memra which in Aramaic means “word.” The Targums were Aramaic translations of the O.T., began during the Babylonian captivity about 700 BC.


In the below list, which is only representative not comprehensive, there are at least eighty examples where the name יהוה/YHWH was replaced, in the Targums, with” מאמר/memra.” When John, the Jew, said to his Jewish audience, “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was God.,” he was not saying anything strange or new.

Remember this is not a Trinitarian source, it is the Jewish Encyclopedia prepared by Jewish scholars documenting the historical faith, beliefs, and practices of the ancient Jews. Some interesting quotes from the below article, all from the Targums, before the Christian era, note the parallels with the N.T..

Here from the Jewish Encyclopedia, part of the article on “Memra.”

[1] “Deut 4:7 The Word brings Israel nigh unto God and [The Word] sits on [God’s] throne receiving the prayers of Israel.” cf. Re 3:21 Re 22:3, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

[2] “Isa 48:13 His Word has laid the foundation of the earth.” cf. John 1:3, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

[3] “Isa 64;13 So, in the future, shall The Word be the comforter.” cf. John 14;18, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Joh 14:18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you..

[4] “Zech 12:5 In The Word redemption will be found.” cf. 1 Cor 1:30, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

1Co 1:30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:

[5] “Lev 22:12 My Word shall be unto you for a redeeming deity.” cf. 1 Cor 1;30, Heb 9:12, Heb 9:15, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

1Co 1:30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:

More complete citations.

Jewish Encyclopedia Memra-In the Targum:

In the Targum the Memra figures constantly as the manifestation of the divine power, or as God's messenger in place of God Himself, wherever the predicate is not in conformity with the dignity or the spirituality of the Deity.

Instead of the Scriptural "You have not believed in the Lord," Targ. Deut. i. 32 has "You have not believed in the word of the Lord"; instead of "I shall require it [vengeance] from him," Targ. Deut. xviii. 19 has "My word shall require it." "The Memra," [The Word] instead of "the Lord," is "the consuming fire" (Targ. Deut. ix. 3; comp. Targ. Isa. xxx. 27). The Memra "plagued the people" (Targ. Yer. to Ex. xxxii. 35). "The Memra smote him" (II Sam. vi. 7; comp. Targ. I Kings xviii. 24; Hos. xiii. 14; et al.). Not "God," but "the Memra [The Word]," is met with in Targ. Ex. xix. 17 (Targ. Yer. "the Shekinah"; comp. Targ. Ex. xxv. 22: "I will order My Memra to be there"). " I will cover thee with My Memra, [My Word] " instead of "My hand " (Targ. Ex. xxxiii. 22). Instead of "My soul," "My Memra [My Word] shall reject you" (Targ. Lev. xxvi. 30; comp. Isa. i. 14, xlii. 1; Jer. vi. 8; Ezek. xxiii. 18). "The voice of the Memra, [The Word] " instead of "God," is heard (Gen. iii. 8; Deut. iv. 33, 36; v. 21; Isa. vi. 8; et al.). Where Moses says, "I stood between the Lord and you" (Deut. v. 5), the Targum has, "between the Memra of the Lord and you"; and the "sign between Me and you" becomes "a sign between My Memra [My Word] and you" (Ex. xxxi. 13, 17; comp. Lev. xxvi. 46; Gen. ix. 12; xvii. 2, 7, 10; Ezek. xx. 12). Instead of God, the Memra comes to Abimelek (Gen. xx. 3), and to Balaam (Num. xxiii. 4). His Memra aids and accompanies Israel, performing wonders for them (Targ. Num. xxiii. 21; Deut. i. 30, xxxiii. 3; Targ. Isa. lxiii. 14; Jer. xxxi. 1; Hos. ix. 10 [comp. xi. 3, "the messenger-angel"]). The Memra goes before Cyrus (Isa. xlv. 12). The Lord swears by His Memra (Gen. xxi. 23, xxii. 16, xxiv. 3; Ex. xxxii. 13; Num. xiv. 30; Isa. xlv. 23; Ezek. xx. 5; et al.). It is His Memra that repents (Targ. Gen. vi. 6, viii. 21; I Sam. xv. 11, 35). Not His "hand," but His "Memra [His Word] has laid the foundation of the earth" (Targ. Isa. xlviii. 13); for His Memra's or Name's sake does He act (l.c. xlviii. 11; II Kings xix. 34). Through the Memra God turns to His people (Targ. Lev. xxvi. 90; II Kings xiii. 23), becomes the shield of Abraham (Gen. xv. 1), and is with Moses (Ex. iii. 12; iv. 12, 15) and with Israel (Targ. Yer. to Num. x. 35, 36; Isa. lxiii. 14). It is the Memra, [The Word]not God Himself,against whom man offends(Ex. xvi. 8; Num. xiv. 5; I Kings viii. 50; II Kings xix. 28; Isa. i. 2, 16; xlv. 3, 20; Hos. v. 7, vi. 7; Targ. Yer. to Lev. v. 21, vi. 2; Deut. v. 11); through His Memra Israel shall be justified (Targ. Isa. xlv. 25); with the Memra Israel stands in communion (Targ. Josh. xxii. 24, 27); in the Memra man puts his trust (Targ. Gen. xv. 6; Targ. Yer. to Ex. xiv. 31; Jer. xxxix. 18, xlix. 11).

Like the Shekinah (comp. Targ. Num. xxiii. 21), the Memra is accordingly the manifestation of God. "The Memra [The Word] brings Israel nigh unto God and sits on His throne receiving the prayers of Israel" " (Targ. Yer. to Deut. iv. 7). . . So, in the future, shall the Memra [The Word] be the comforter (Targ. Isa. lxvi. 13): "My Shekinah I shall put among you, My Memra [My Word] shall be unto you for a redeeming deity, and you shall be unto My Name a holy people" (Targ. Yer. to Lev. xxii. 12).

The Memra is "the witness" (Targ. Yer. xxix. 23); it will be to Israel like a father (l.c. xxxi. 9) and "will rejoice over them to do them good" (l.c. xxxii. 41). "In the Memra [The Word] the redemption will be found " (Targ. Zech. xii. 5).

Jewish Encylopædia online
 
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Wgw

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I thought I might interject a little historical evidence of how the Jews understood "the Word."

John was a simple Jewish fisherman, not a Greek philosopher, therefore his understanding of God and the Logos i.e. Word, would be Jewish, not Greek.

Here from the Jewish Encyclopedia, part of the article on “Memra.” מאמר/memra which in Aramaic means “word.” The Targums were Aramaic translations of the O.T., began during the Babylonian captivity about 700 BC.


In the below list, which is only representative not comprehensive, there are at least eighty examples where the name יהוה/YHWH was replaced, in the Targums, with” מאמר/memra.” When John, the Jew, said to his Jewish audience, “In the beginning was the Word and the Word was God.,” he was not saying anything strange or new.

Remember this is not a Trinitarian source, it is the Jewish Encyclopedia prepared by Jewish scholars documenting the historical faith, beliefs, and practices of the ancient Jews. Some interesting quotes from the below article, all from the Targums, before the Christian era, note the parallels with the N.T..

Here from the Jewish Encyclopedia, part of the article on “Memra.”

[1] “Deut 4:7 The Word brings Israel nigh unto God and [The Word] sits on [God’s] throne receiving the prayers of Israel.” cf. Re 3:21 Re 22:3, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

[2] “Isa 48:13 His Word has laid the foundation of the earth.” cf. John 1:3, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

[3] “Isa 64;13 So, in the future, shall The Word be the comforter.” cf. John 14;18, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

Joh 14:18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you..

[4] “Zech 12:5 In The Word redemption will be found.” cf. 1 Cor 1:30, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

1Co 1:30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:

[5] “Lev 22:12 My Word shall be unto you for a redeeming deity.” cf. 1 Cor 1;30, Heb 9:12, Heb 9:15, N.T. ca. 70 AD.

1Co 1:30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:

More complete citations.

Jewish Encyclopedia Memra-In the Targum:

In the Targum the Memra figures constantly as the manifestation of the divine power, or as God's messenger in place of God Himself, wherever the predicate is not in conformity with the dignity or the spirituality of the Deity.

Instead of the Scriptural "You have not believed in the Lord," Targ. Deut. i. 32 has "You have not believed in the word of the Lord"; instead of "I shall require it [vengeance] from him," Targ. Deut. xviii. 19 has "My word shall require it." "The Memra," [The Word] instead of "the Lord," is "the consuming fire" (Targ. Deut. ix. 3; comp. Targ. Isa. xxx. 27). The Memra "plagued the people" (Targ. Yer. to Ex. xxxii. 35). "The Memra smote him" (II Sam. vi. 7; comp. Targ. I Kings xviii. 24; Hos. xiii. 14; et al.). Not "God," but "the Memra [The Word]," is met with in Targ. Ex. xix. 17 (Targ. Yer. "the Shekinah"; comp. Targ. Ex. xxv. 22: "I will order My Memra to be there"). " I will cover thee with My Memra, [My Word] " instead of "My hand " (Targ. Ex. xxxiii. 22). Instead of "My soul," "My Memra [My Word] shall reject you" (Targ. Lev. xxvi. 30; comp. Isa. i. 14, xlii. 1; Jer. vi. 8; Ezek. xxiii. 18). "The voice of the Memra, [The Word] " instead of "God," is heard (Gen. iii. 8; Deut. iv. 33, 36; v. 21; Isa. vi. 8; et al.). Where Moses says, "I stood between the Lord and you" (Deut. v. 5), the Targum has, "between the Memra of the Lord and you"; and the "sign between Me and you" becomes "a sign between My Memra [My Word] and you" (Ex. xxxi. 13, 17; comp. Lev. xxvi. 46; Gen. ix. 12; xvii. 2, 7, 10; Ezek. xx. 12). Instead of God, the Memra comes to Abimelek (Gen. xx. 3), and to Balaam (Num. xxiii. 4). His Memra aids and accompanies Israel, performing wonders for them (Targ. Num. xxiii. 21; Deut. i. 30, xxxiii. 3; Targ. Isa. lxiii. 14; Jer. xxxi. 1; Hos. ix. 10 [comp. xi. 3, "the messenger-angel"]). The Memra goes before Cyrus (Isa. xlv. 12). The Lord swears by His Memra (Gen. xxi. 23, xxii. 16, xxiv. 3; Ex. xxxii. 13; Num. xiv. 30; Isa. xlv. 23; Ezek. xx. 5; et al.). It is His Memra that repents (Targ. Gen. vi. 6, viii. 21; I Sam. xv. 11, 35). Not His "hand," but His "Memra [His Word] has laid the foundation of the earth" (Targ. Isa. xlviii. 13); for His Memra's or Name's sake does He act (l.c. xlviii. 11; II Kings xix. 34). Through the Memra God turns to His people (Targ. Lev. xxvi. 90; II Kings xiii. 23), becomes the shield of Abraham (Gen. xv. 1), and is with Moses (Ex. iii. 12; iv. 12, 15) and with Israel (Targ. Yer. to Num. x. 35, 36; Isa. lxiii. 14). It is the Memra, [The Word]not God Himself,against whom man offends(Ex. xvi. 8; Num. xiv. 5; I Kings viii. 50; II Kings xix. 28; Isa. i. 2, 16; xlv. 3, 20; Hos. v. 7, vi. 7; Targ. Yer. to Lev. v. 21, vi. 2; Deut. v. 11); through His Memra Israel shall be justified (Targ. Isa. xlv. 25); with the Memra Israel stands in communion (Targ. Josh. xxii. 24, 27); in the Memra man puts his trust (Targ. Gen. xv. 6; Targ. Yer. to Ex. xiv. 31; Jer. xxxix. 18, xlix. 11).

Like the Shekinah (comp. Targ. Num. xxiii. 21), the Memra is accordingly the manifestation of God. "The Memra [The Word] brings Israel nigh unto God and sits on His throne receiving the prayers of Israel" " (Targ. Yer. to Deut. iv. 7). . . So, in the future, shall the Memra [The Word] be the comforter (Targ. Isa. lxvi. 13): "My Shekinah I shall put among you, My Memra [My Word] shall be unto you for a redeeming deity, and you shall be unto My Name a holy people" (Targ. Yer. to Lev. xxii. 12).

The Memra is "the witness" (Targ. Yer. xxix. 23); it will be to Israel like a father (l.c. xxxi. 9) and "will rejoice over them to do them good" (l.c. xxxii. 41). "In the Memra [The Word] the redemption will be found " (Targ. Zech. xii. 5).

Jewish Encylopædia online

Indeed, this relates to, but is distinct from, the Greek philosophical concept of the logos; St. John deftly blends the two by using the word "Logos" which alludes both to Memra and to the somewhat weaker but conceptually similiar idea we see in Greek and to some extent (Philo) Hellenized Judaism.
 
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Albion

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I think that in most instances, you understand the words that I offer regardless of spelling or punctuation.

I understand you when you do this. I asked why you insist upon asking for a clearminded discussion...and then persist in going out of your way to insult those who believe in the Trinity.

It's not MEANT to be offensive, just a method of showing that I do not conform to such man made tradition or doctrine or whatever one may choose to call it. If that's offensive, then one who is offended must have learned to be from their 'church'
Illogical and untrue. It's standard usage you can find in any history book.

that taught them to find NON belief in 'trinity' to be offensive. I certainly don't find the capitalization of the word offensive.
Then do it...and add the word "the" in front of it.
 
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Wgw

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I'm sorry, but I'm not buying your nonsense. I haven't tried to pass off anything. I simply posted what the Nicene creed and Scriptures say. I would submit that it is you that is trying to pass something off by not defining your terms. I've asked you to define your terms and you haven't. I've asked you who is God, you said, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Then I asked you how is there one God. You started talking about a divine essence which you wouldn't define. An essence is the attributes or properties of something. It's not a thing in and of itself. They you said the three proposa were distinct yet not separate, yet if they're distinct they cannot be one.

This vagueness let's you denounce other's views without letting your's be nailed down, thus effectively moving the goal post when you view is challenged. However, the fact of the matter is that your view is a logical contradiction. The Scriptures refer to God as "He" not "it". Thus God is a being not a divine essence. It's quite obvious that one being cannot consist of three other beings or persons. Your view doesn't even fit with the Nicene creed as it says, "I believe in one God, the Father'. And contrary to your claim, I have repeatedly, not only acknowledged, but pointed out that the creed also acknowledges that Jesus is God. Twice now I've presented you with the question of resolving that and you've ignored it both times. If you want to understand the Trinity as understood in the Nicene creed I 'd suggest reading the Anti-Nicene writers who came up with it rather than Nicene writers, many of whom held the Augustinian view of the Trinity as espoused in the Anthansian creed.

I feel obliged also to point out that ousia is commonly translated as "being." In the sense that ousia is understood this way, we can refer to it as "the being of God."
 
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