This should end the discussion about easy grace and OSAS!

FreeGrace2

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There are many verses and you've been showed them many times. You just don't want to believe what they say so you just cast them aside and then claim again no one can show you scripture.
I make my claim on the basis of the fact that there are no verses that indicate that regeneration precedes salvation.

We keep going around and around in circles. Let's take a different approach; regeneration precedes salvation is arrived at systematically also.
Sure. From the Calvinistic view. I only look at the Biblical view.

This is where irresistible grace comes in.
Irresistible Grace:
Oh, you mean another "systematic" Calvinistic view? OK.

When God calls his elect into salvation, they cannot resist.
No verse in the Bible teaches this.

God offers to all people the gospel message. This is called the external call.
This makes no logical or "systematic sense" at all. If God already chose from "eternity past" those He would save, and IF Christ died only for them, then there is NO REASON to offer the gospel to anyone else. They weren't "chosen to believe" and so they cannot believe, and so there is NO REASON to offer to them what they cannot receive.

This is why Calvinism makes no sense, logically or systematically.

But to the elect, God extends an internal call and it cannot be resisted.
I'm waiting for any verse that indicates this.

This call is by the Holy Spirit who works in the hearts and minds of the elect to bring them to repentance and regeneration whereby they willingly and freely come to God.
lol. They "cannot resist", yet they come to God willingly and freely. Such a huge contradiction logically and really. It's either one or the other. To claim both is to talk from both sides of your mouth.

Some of the verses used in support of this teaching are Romans 9:16 where it says that "it is not of him who wills nor of him who runs, but of God who has mercy"
This sure doesn't say anything about "irresistible grace". It may seem that way to some, but the verse does not communicate that idea.

; Philippians 2:12-13 where God is said to be the one working salvation in the individual
The word 'salvation' in that passage is about our sanctification. The present tense of salvation; being saved from the power of sin.

John 6:28-29 where faith is declared to be the work of God
Another misunderstanding. The Jews specifically asked what THEY MUST DO to do the works of God. Or what they must do to do the works God requires (NIV). What God requires is faith in Christ.

Acts 13:48 where God appoints people to believe
Where does the word 'God' appear anywhere in that passage? It doesn't. The claim is just a huge assumption. The word for 'appoint/ordain' is tasso, and is translated "devoted" in 1 Cor 16:15. The word is NEVER translated as either "appoint" or "ordain" in ANY of the other 7 uses in the NT. The basic meaning of the word is to "line up, arrange in order". And we see from context in v.44 that "nearly the whole city gathered" to hear Paul. So we understand the word tasso describes what the people did to hear Paul; they lined up.

AND, the verb tense used in 13:48 is the SAME for both middle and passive voice, so one can only determine which voice was meant by context. And v.44 indicates that Luke meant the middle voice. iow, they lined themselves up to hear Paul.

and John 1:12-13 where being born again is not by man’s will, but by God’s.
This is irrelevant to the issue. Of course regeneration comes from God. But that is not the issue. The issue is WHEN regeneration occurs; before, after or during faith.

“All that the Father gives Me shall come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out," (John 6:37).
I'm just not seeing anything in this verse about the timing of regeneration.

* if all that the father gives to Jesus 'will come'. And not every human comes to him. That would logically mean the father did not give all humans to Jesus but only the elect. It's so simple.
Yes, I know it's so simple. God saves those who believe, according to 1 Cor 1:21. In fact, the verse says He's pleased to do so.

Still, none of the verses cited says anything about WHEN regeneration occurs in relation to faith. Only Eph 2:5 and 8 do that. And it isn't the way Calvinists think it is.
 
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Isaiah55:6

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lol. They "cannot resist", yet they come to God willingly and freely.
they 'cannot resist' because it's irresistible. If somebody ate nothing but green beans their whole life and then all of a sudden one day somebody puts a bowl of ice cream and a plate of green beans In front of them, they are gonna choose the ice cream. Why? Because they were forced to eat the ice cream? No! Because the ice cream would be to irresistible for them to turn down.

Yes, I know it's so simple. God saves those who believe, according to 1 Cor 1:21. In fact, the verse says He's pleased to do so.

Ok let's look at this long and hard. "All that the father gives me, will come to me and I will in no way cast them out.

'ALL' that the father gives Jesus 'WILL COME'. [thats a direct statement]
Does every man 'COME TO JESUS'? No!
So logically the Father did not give 'ALL' men to Jesus. or else all men would come. It's only those he has predestined. This only makes sense from an election/predestination view. It can't work any other way.

And please don't respond by saying God elected by his forknowledge of knowing who would choose him in the future. That view has three major problems.
1) that would mean God learns and is not all knowing.

2) To say that our salvation depends on our own ability to choose God would mean that our sovereign almighty God's plan of salvation is contingent on mans choices.

3) what would be the point of election ? if God only chooses those he foreseen would choose him?
 
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sdowney717

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they 'cannot resist' because it's irresistible. If somebody ate nothing but green beans their whole life and then all of a sudden one day somebody puts a bowl of ice cream and a plate of green beans In front of them, they are gonna choose the ice cream. Why? Because they were forced to eat the ice cream? No! Because the ice cream would be to irresistible for them to turn down.



Ok let's look at this long and hard. "All that the father gives me, will come to me and I will in no way cast them out.

'ALL' that the father gives Jesus 'WILL COME'. [thats a direct statement]
Does every man 'COME TO JESUS'? No!
So logically the Father did not give 'ALL' men to Jesus. or else all men would come. It's only those he has predestined. This only makes sense from an election/predestination view. It can't work any other way.

And please don't respond by saying God elected by his forknowledge of knowing who would choose him in the future. That view has three major problems.
1) that would mean God learns and is not all knowing.

2) To say that our salvation depends on our own ability to choose God would mean that our sovereign almighty God's plan of salvation is contingent on mans choices.

3) what would be the point of election ? if God only chooses those he foreseen would choose him?

Additionally, it is not what God foreknew people would do, it says
'whom He foreknew' as in a relationship of love, so then not what God foreknew..
 
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FreeGrace2

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they 'cannot resist' because it's irresistible.
Where is the Scripture that teaches this??

Ok let's look at this long and hard. "All that the father gives me, will come to me and I will in no way cast them out.

'ALL' that the father gives Jesus 'WILL COME'. [thats a direct statement]
Does every man 'COME TO JESUS'? No!
So logically the Father did not give 'ALL' men to Jesus. or else all men would come. It's only those he has predestined. This only makes sense from an election/predestination view. It can't work any other way.
No, what makes sense is that God gives ALL BELIEVERS to Jesus. Nothing else.

And please don't respond by saying God elected by his forknowledge of knowing who would choose him in the future. That view has three major problems.
OK, I won't say that. I'll let Peter do the talking:

1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who reside as aliens, scattered throughout Pontus,Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, who are chosen (elected) 2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace be yours in the fullest measure. 1 Pet 1:1,2

1) that would mean God learns and is not all knowing.
No, it doesn't. His foreknowledge refers to His omniscience. He has always known everything. But you're right; He doesn't learn.

2) To say that our salvation depends on our own ability to choose God would mean that our sovereign almighty God's plan of salvation is contingent on mans choices.
Uh, there is no "ability" involved in choosing God. That's just a rumor, peddled by Calvinists.

3) what would be the point of election ? if God only chooses those he foreseen would choose him?
Because Calvinism doesn't understand what election is about. It's not about salvation. It's about service and privilege.

There are 6 categories of election. Let's see how many were chosen to be saved:
1. Jesus Christ. Nah
2. the nation of Israel. Nah
3. angels. Nah
4. NT believers. Nah, they're already saved
5. the original 12 disciples. Nah, that even included the unsaved Judas
6. Paul was chosen to preach to Gentiles. Nah, he was already saved when chosen

How 'bout that? None of the 6 categories were chosen to be saved.

That's one of the problems with Calvinism. Their foundation is based on erroneous concepts.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Isaiah55:6 said: "they 'cannot resist' because it's irresistible."

Where is the Scripture that teaches this??
"All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out." John 6:37

Uh, there is no "ability" involved in choosing God. That's just a rumor, peddled by Calvinists.
The Bible teaches very clearly that some have "abilities" given to them that others do not. If you don't see that it is because you simply don't wish to see it.

Jesus answered them, “To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been granted." Matthew 13:11

And He said, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God" Luke 8:10


No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day." John 6:44

"But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised." 1 Corinthians 2:14

"Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot hear My word." John 8:43

Jesus answered and said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” John 3:3
 
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brotherjerry

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Marvin and Isaiah

The Wind analogy you all mentioned.
John 3:8 The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit.

That does not say that the Spirit is like the wind, it says "so is everyone who is born of the Spirit". How can you twist something that is in simple English? And even if you applied the analogy to the Spirit, it simply means that you do not know where this birth comes from, it just is. You know you are born again by the change in your life, but you don't see the change, you don't see the Spirit, you only hear/feel it. That is what was being talked about, the change..the being born of the Spirit that Jesus was talking about with Nicodemus was not a physical birth that you could see, but you would see the effects of it. This message is talked about several times, John 10:38, Matthew 7:16 .

Marvin you cited John 6:37 as a text that indicates people cannot resist? How do you get that from that verse? The verse says that God will give to Jesus, and that Jesus will not cast out. It does not say anything about resisting or being irresistable.

I find it interesting that you would cite Matthew 13:11 as reference to some having abilities given to them and others not. Because that whole section is explaining why Jesus speaks in Parables. And Jesus cites the Old Testament in verse 15 "... For the heart of the people has become dull, with their ears they scarcely hear, and they have closed their eyes, otherwise they would see with their eyes, hear with their ears, and understand wtih their heart and return, and I would heal them"
The verse does not say that God closed their eyes, or dulled their heart. It even states that it was the people that closed their eyes. And if they had not closed their eyes, then they would have seen, and heard, and understood...and if they understood they would have returned and God would heal them. That is not election, that is the will of man turning away from God, just as Adam did.

Luke 8:10 is condensed version of Matthew 13, so the same would hold true in the greater context of what was spoken of during that time.

John 6:44...again when you look at the context of the verse it does not fit what you want to claim it does.
Jesus is speaking directly to the Jews, because they were grumbling (vs 41) They were questioning if Jesus was from God since He had a mother and father that they knew (vs 42). Right after the verse you cite Jeuss says in John 6:45 "...everyone who has heard and learned form the Father, comes to me" We are the ones who have to hear, in verse 47 Jesus says "he who believes has eternal life", after we hear if we believe we have eternal life. This too goes against election, if you cannot resist God's call, then there is no belief. It is also important to point out that in John 6 Jesus talks about the calling of the 12 that includes Judas, one who did not believe...a prime example that all are called, but some may not listen as spoken of in Matthew 13. And Jesus says in verse 70 "Did I myself not choose you, the twelve, and yet one of you is a devil?" So Christ called the 12.

1 Corinthians 2:14 is also taken a bit out of context. Paul is speaking to and about mature Christians and advanced knowledge of the things of the Spirit. Vs 6 "Yet we do speak wisdom among those who are mature; a wisdom, however, not of this age nor of the rulers of this age, who are passing away." At the very beginning of this chapter Paul says that he came to them with a simple message, verse 2 "For I determined to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and Him crucified" Verse 4 "and my message and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power." He explains why in verse 5 "so that your faith would not rest on the wisdom of men, but on the power of God", babes in Christ can succumb to doctrines of men and not the power of God. They fall into the traps of man made doctrines (speaking in tongues in order to be saved, baby baptisms, etc, etc). But then in verse 6 as mentioned...we do speak the wise things among those who have their faith resting on the power of God.

John 8:43. First let me get into the word here. The word for "cannot" is δύναμαι Strong 1410. Defined as "to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources, or of a state of mind" This is not the only word for "cannot" and several others would do better to support your position and use. But this one specifically refers to the person's own ability, or their state of mind. And the state of mind is important when you look at the context of the verse by the surrounding verses.
John 8:44 "You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father"... Verse 45 "But because I speak the truth, you do not believe me." Verse 47 clarifies well "He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God." When you couple this with a "want to do" you can see that it is the mans "desire" that puts them where they are, not God electing.

John 3:3...DUH...unless one is a follower of Christ you will never see the kingdom...sorry that verse does not support one position or the other :) It is the simple truth
 
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sdowney717

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Marvin and Isaiah

The Wind analogy you all mentioned.
John 3:8 The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit.

That does not say that the Spirit is like the wind, it says "so is everyone who is born of the Spirit". How can you twist something that is in simple English? And even if you applied the analogy to the Spirit, it simply means that you do not know where this birth comes from, it just is. You know you are born again by the change in your life, but you don't see the change, you don't see the Spirit, you only hear/feel it. That is what was being talked about, the change..the being born of the Spirit that Jesus was talking about with Nicodemus was not a physical birth that you could see, but you would see the effects of it. This message is talked about several times, John 10:38, Matthew 7:16 .

But the context, to what Christ is referring to is the PROCESS of regeneration. The being born again.
Nicodemus asks HOW can a man be born again, and Christ gives the answer.
John 3
4 Nicodemus said to Him, “How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born?”

5 Jesus answered, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not marvel that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’ 8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but cannot tell where it comes from and where it goes. So is everyone who is born of the Spirit.”

Christ here is not talking about the visible evidence of a transformed life.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Isaiah55:6 said: "they 'cannot resist' because it's irresistible."
So I asked this:
"Where is the Scripture that teaches this??"

And Marvin quotes this:
"All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out." John 6:37

I do not see where this verse teaches irresistibility. Those whom the Father gives are obviously believers. I do not see anything about grace being irresistible.

The Bible teaches very clearly that some have "abilities" given to them that others do not. If you don't see that it is because you simply don't wish to see it.
Sure, God does give all believers different abilities. But what does that have to do with irresistibility?


Jesus answered them, “To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been granted." Matthew 13:11
Again, what does this have to do with irresistibility? This verse is about what God has given to the disciples.

And He said, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God" Luke 8:10

No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day." John 6:44
And the very next verse tells us who comes to Jesus: those who have listened and learned from the Father. Again, nothing about irrestibility.


"But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised." 1 Corinthians 2:14
According to the context, v.6 and v.10 tell us that the unbeliever cannot understand a "message for the mature" and the "deep things of God". This is about advanced doctrine, not the gospel. So again, nothing here about irresistibility.

In fact, many unbelievers understand the gospel message, all the while rejecting it.

"Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot hear My word." John 8:43
Those who don't want to listen don't hear. Very simple. And, again, nothing about irresistibility here.

Jesus answered and said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” John 3:3
Uh, v.5 explains the meaning of "see" in v.3. One must enter in order to see the kingdom. And again, there is nothing of irresisibility in this verse.

I've commented on each of the verses that you quoted. None of them are about irresistibility.

So, where are the verses that do teach about irresistibility.
 
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sdowney717

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So I asked this:
"Where is the Scripture that teaches this??"

And Marvin quotes this:
"All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out." John 6:37

I do not see where this verse teaches irresistibility. Those whom the Father gives are obviously believers. I do not see anything about grace being irresistible.


Sure, God does give all believers different abilities. But what does that have to do with irresistibility?



Again, what does this have to do with irresistibility? This verse is about what God has given to the disciples.




And the very next verse tells us who comes to Jesus: those who have listened and learned from the Father. Again, nothing about irrestibility.



According to the context, v.6 and v.10 tell us that the unbeliever cannot understand a "message for the mature" and the "deep things of God". This is about advanced doctrine, not the gospel. So again, nothing here about irresistibility.

In fact, many unbelievers understand the gospel message, all the while rejecting it.


Those who don't want to listen don't hear. Very simple. And, again, nothing about irresistibility here.


Uh, v.5 explains the meaning of "see" in v.3. One must enter in order to see the kingdom. And again, there is nothing of irresisibility in this verse.

I've commented on each of the verses that you quoted. None of them are about irresistibility.

So, where are the verses that do teach about irresistibility.

I am sure you will object somehow, but here are some.

http://www.gotquestions.org/irresistible-grace.html
 
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sdowney717

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Hebrews 9:15
And for this reason He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance.

Salvation is of the Lord and is only actually obtained by those He has called.

Romans 9:11
(for the children not yet being born, nor having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls),

Romans 11:7
What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I am sure you will object somehow, but here are some.

http://www.gotquestions.org/irresistible-grace.html
OK, this is from that site:

"Simply put, the doctrine of irresistible grace refers to the biblical truth that whatever God decrees to happen will inevitably come to pass, even in the salvation of individuals".

Where does the Bible teach that God has decreed individuals to salvation? That is NOT found in Scripture, or someone would have by now shoved the verse or verses down my throat. But they simply don't occur.

So the basis of 'irresistible grace' is a false premise to begin with.

Yes, everything that God decrees WILL happen. Here is what God has decreed: that everyone who believes in His Son will have eternal life and be saved.

And there are verses that actually say these things:

Regarding eternal life:
“For thisis the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.” Jn 6:40

Regarding salvation:
"For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe." 1 Cor 1:21

These verses say exactly what I believe.

There are no verses that teach that God decrees anyone to salvation, unless one is willing to accept that He had decreed that all who believe will be saved.

But He doesn't decree anyone apart from believing in Christ.

And TULIP fails to recognize that God does not save anyone apart from a condition. And that condition is faith in Christ.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Hebrews 9:15
And for this reason He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance.

Salvation is of the Lord and is only actually obtained by those He has called.

Romans 9:11
(for the children not yet being born, nor having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls),

Romans 11:7
What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded.
And what do these verses teach? Most of them were bolded, but what do you think they are teaching?

Heb 9:15 is about invitation or being called out. Not decreed.

Rom 9:11 is about election, which is about special privilege and service. None of the 6 categories of election are about being chosen to salvation.

Rom 11:7 is about the elect obtaining what the Jews were seeking but not finding. What did Israel seek? Salvation. But they did not receive it because they perverted the Law, thinking that they could obey the Law for salvation. But salvation is by GRACE through faith. Israel tried to receive salvation through works of the Law. And they failed.

Again, none of these 3 verses are about God's decrees or about irresistible grace.
 
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Job8

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Where does the Bible teach that God has decreed individuals to salvation?
If God decreed salvation, then it would be for all humanity, since God has decreed repentance for all humanity. That is His command. Those who repent and believe, are saved. Those who do not repent and believe are damned.

And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent: Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead. (Acts 17:30,31).

And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned. (Mk 16:15,16).
 
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sdowney717

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And what do these verses teach? Most of them were bolded, but what do you think they are teaching?

Heb 9:15 is about invitation or being called out. Not decreed.

Rom 9:11 is about election, which is about special privilege and service. None of the 6 categories of election are about being chosen to salvation.

Rom 11:7 is about the elect obtaining what the Jews were seeking but not finding. What did Israel seek? Salvation. But they did not receive it because they perverted the Law, thinking that they could obey the Law for salvation. But salvation is by GRACE through faith. Israel tried to receive salvation through works of the Law. And they failed.

Again, none of these 3 verses are about God's decrees or about irresistible grace.
FreeGrace2 said:
Where does the Bible teach that God has decreed individuals to salvation?

I don't redefine the meaning of words in scripture to fit an incomplete ideological concept of salvation, which is meant actually to deceive people away from the truth of how we have been saved by God and in quite a bit of bold arrogance as well.
Many people simply pop in posting with verses claiming it fits what they say and ignore or twist the ones that do not.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Marvin and Isaiah
The Wind analogy you all mentioned.
John 3:8 The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit.

That does not say that the Spirit is like the wind, it says "so is everyone who is born of the Spirit". How can you twist something that is in simple English? And even if you applied the analogy to the Spirit, it simply means that you do not know where this birth comes from, it just is. You know you are born again by the change in your life, but you don't see the change, you don't see the Spirit, you only hear/feel it. That is what was being talked about, the change..the being born of the Spirit that Jesus was talking about with Nicodemus was not a physical birth that you could see, but you would see the effects of it. This message is talked about several times, John 10:38, Matthew 7:16 .
First of all - Thank you so much for taking the time to forward to me your questions and statements about my post.

FreeGrace2 said point blank that there is no “ability” involved in choosing the Lord. I was demonstrating throughout my post that there is indeed “ability” involved and that that ability has not been given to everyone. Some have the ability and some do not. That was the point I was making in my post.

Let me say also that there was at no time any twisting of simple English involved in my post. Also I would like to point out that your post lapses into question concerning election which is not per se the point of what we are talking about here. Of course it is certainly that concept as well as predestination is related in some ways to God’s giving of “abilities “to some and not others however.

Now to your statements here:

I am saying that being “born again” is like the “effects” of the wind. Jesus and I are saying that those effects are the result of the invisible wind’s actions. They are not the wind itself.

Rustling leaves, a cold chill on the face and what have you are not the wind itself. They are merely the effects of the wind’s invisible activities. Likewise - believing the Word of God, saying the sinner’s prayer, walking down an isle at a Billy Graham crusade and what have you are merely the effects of the invisible activities of the Holy Spirit. They are not themselves the Holy Spirit. They are like the cry of the new born baby. But they are not the actual start of the life of that baby. (That’s a bit more mysterious.)

We do not know where the impetuous to respond to the Word of God comes from, But it is not a “natural” impetuous. (It is doubly so that we do not know if we resist the doctrine about which we have been talking.) But, if you can receive it, the Holy Spirit has been working before the new birth to make it possible. After all the Spirit of Christ is “the author of your faith” showing that “by grace you have been saved”.

You are also conflating the results of regeneration with being born again- a common mistake. Being born again “by the living and abiding Word of God” is not the same as regeneration – just as being born physically is not the same as the giving of life that makes being born possible. In the example of physical life - in due time those generated by their natural father will appear and begin to show forth life. Likewise we are born into and function in the Kingdom of God by believing and applying the Word of God. But, just as with the natural example that Jesus used, that birth and participation in the Kingdom is not itself the act of regeneration.

Jesus gave us two overlapping examples so that we should not miss these simple truths. Some miss it anyway simply IMO because they chafe at the concept of election that is (as you were quick to point out) involved here.
Marvin you cited John 6:37 as a text that indicates people cannot resist? How do you get that from that verse? The verse says that God will give to Jesus, and that Jesus will not cast out. It does not say anything about resisting or being irresistable.
Certain people, who have been given to the Jesus by the Father “will” come to Him. The scriptures clearly say that they are drawn to Jesus by the Father. The ability to come to Jesus is an “ability” that not all have been given. That is the subject addressed by the scriptures used in my post.. As FreeGrace2 and you both seem to know your way around the gospels – I assumed that you would connect the dots. No scripture is an island after all.
I find it interesting that you would cite Matthew 13:11 as reference to some having abilities given to them and others not. Because that whole section is explaining why Jesus speaks in Parables. And Jesus cites the Old Testament in verse 15 "... For the heart of the people has become dull, with their ears they scarcely hear, and they have closed their eyes, otherwise they would see with their eyes, hear with their ears, and understand wtih their heart and return, and I would heal them"
The verse does not say that God closed their eyes, or dulled their heart. It even states that it was the people that closed their eyes. And if they had not closed their eyes, then they would have seen, and heard, and understood...and if they understood they would have returned and God would heal them. That is not election, that is the will of man turning away from God, just as Adam did.

Luke 8:10 is condensed version of Matthew 13, so the same would hold true in the greater context of what was spoken of during that time.
Again – I’m assuming that people who have taken it upon themselves to discuss doctrine here would have a good overall knowledge of scripture so that they can connect the dots as it were.

The principle of God’s dealing with men as they deal with Him is set forth clearly throughout scripture. We have such things as Pharaoh hardening his heart and God also hardening his heart reciprocally. We have the principles set forth in Romans that say such things as “because” they acted in a depraved way He “gave them over” to even more depravity and “because” they did not believe such and such He let them believe a lie etc. etc.

These principles of the stewardship of man vs. the blessings of God play over into the N.T. as well. It applies very clearly to our good or bad stewardship of money being blessed or cursed with more or less money to work with in the future.

With regard to the idea of doctrine it also applies that God gives and withholds the ability to understand based on how we handle what He has given us to believe. If we will not receive knowledge then He will not give more knowledge and so on.

“So take care how you listen; for whoever has, to him more shall be given; and whoever does not have, even what he thinks he has shall be taken away from him." Luke 8:18

“Whoever has will be given more, and they will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them.” Matthew 13:12

“Whoever has will be given more, and they will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them.” Matthew 25:29

“Whoever has will be given more; whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them." Mark . 4:25

"He replied, 'I tell you that to everyone who has, more will be given, but as for the one who has nothing, even what they have will be taken away.” Luke 19:26

This idea of some being given the ability to receive based on the fact that they received what they were given before and others having that ability withheld because they did not receive is a basic principle of the Kingdom of God. I’m surprised you are unaware of it.

One must connect the dots scripture and concept to scripture and concept if one is to understand systematic theology.

Actually I believe that these Kingdom principles go a long way toward explaining why many here in the forum cannot receive certain doctrines. They refuse some doctrines because they are offended and as a result God withholds understanding and reception of other related doctrines until they bring themselves in alignment with certain basic teachings which they have here to fore rejected.
 
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Marvin Knox

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John 6:44...again when you look at the context of the verse it does not fit what you want to claim it does.
Jesus is speaking directly to the Jews, because they were grumbling (vs 41) They were questioning if Jesus was from God since He had a mother and father that they knew (vs 42). Right after the verse you cite Jeuss says in John 6:45 "...everyone who has heard and learned form the Father, comes to me" We are the ones who have to hear, in verse 47 Jesus says "he who believes has eternal life", after we hear if we believe we have eternal life. This too goes against election, if you cannot resist God's call, then there is no belief. It is also important to point out that in John 6 Jesus talks about the calling of the 12 that includes Judas, one who did not believe...a prime example that all are called, but some may not listen as spoken of in Matthew 13. And Jesus says in verse 70 "Did I myself not choose you, the twelve, and yet one of you is a devil?" So Christ called the 12.
This passage clearly teaches that some are drawn by the Father and therefore come to Jesus. Not all are drawn by the Father and thereby enabled to come. This verse, as do the others, speaks about some having been given the ability to come through this “drawing” by the Father while others do not have that “ability”. The fact that “ability” does, indeed, have to do with people receiving Jesus is the “context” and what this discussion is all about.
1 Corinthians 2:14 is also taken a bit out of context. Paul is speaking to and about mature Christians and advanced knowledge of the things of the Spirit. Vs 6 "Yet we do speak wisdom among those who are mature; a wisdom, however, not of this age nor of the rulers of this age, who are passing away." At the very beginning of this chapter Paul says that he came to them with a simple message, verse 2 "For I determined to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and Him crucified" Verse 4 "and my message and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power." He explains why in verse 5 "so that your faith would not rest on the wisdom of men, but on the power of God", babes in Christ can succumb to doctrines of men and not the power of God. They fall into the traps of man made doctrines (speaking in tongues in order to be saved, baby baptisms, etc, etc). But then in verse 6 as mentioned...we do speak the wise things among those who have their faith resting on the power of God.
Again – the “natural” man does not have the ability to understand and accept the things of God. He has to be given that “ability” through the impartation of spiritual life which he lacks as a “natural” fallen man.

Only God can give that spiritual life since He is the one who took it away in the first place. Some having spiritual life and others not having spiritual life speaks to “ability” having everything to do with receiving Christ. This is what the discussion is all about and that is why all of these scriptures apply.

Again though – you must be willing and able to connect the dots through an overall knowledge of the scriptures or you will miss these things.
John 8:43. First let me get into the word here. The word for "cannot" is δύναμαι Strong 1410. Defined as "to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources, or of a state of mind" This is not the only word for "cannot" and several others would do better to support your position and use. But this one specifically refers to the person's own ability, or their state of mind. And the state of mind is important when you look at the context of the verse by the surrounding verses.
John 8:44 "You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father"... Verse 45 "But because I speak the truth, you do not believe me." Verse 47 clarifies well "He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God." When you couple this with a "want to do" you can see that it is the mans "desire" that puts them where they are, not God electing.
You are lapsing again here into a discussion of election. That is a subject that I wouldn’t mind discussing. But we are discussing FreeGrace2’s statement that “ability” has nothing to do with accepting Christ.

Your own words here affirm that it does indeed have to do with accepting Christ. If some cannot and some can it goes to prove that some have an ability that others lack.
John 3:3...DUH...unless one is a follower of Christ you will never see the kingdom...sorry that verse does not support one position or the other :) It is the simple truth
Again – the question before us is whether “ability” has anything to do with receiving the Word of God.

If the natural man cannot understand and receive the Word of God and one is born again and enters the Kingdom of God by receiving the Word of God – it follows that there must be an “ability” that some have that others lack (namely “natural” men) both to understand and enter into the Kingdom of God.

This has been a difficult couple of posts because you have entered into a discussion about “ability” and brought in other concepts such as election into the discussion at times.

May I suggest that, if we are to continue, you ask a more limited question that I can answer and I will tell you the answer. Likewise – if you will simply ask rather than lecture – I will be more able to connect the dots for you using the comparing scripture to scripture principle of systematic theology.
 
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FreeGrace2

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If God decreed salvation, then it would be for all humanity, since God has decreed repentance for all humanity. That is His command. Those who repent and believe, are saved. Those who do not repent and believe are damned.

And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent: Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead. (Acts 17:30,31).

And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned. (Mk 16:15,16).
Well said!
 
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FreeGrace2

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FreeGrace2 said:
Where does the Bible teach that God has decreed individuals to salvation?

I don't redefine the meaning of words in scripture to fit an incomplete ideological concept of salvation, which is meant actually to deceive people away from the truth of how we have been saved by God and in quite a bit of bold arrogance as well.
Please quit spewing this stuff.

My question is straight forward and legitimate. I am using the word "salvation" as all evangelicals understand the word: salvation from the second death, or the lake of fire.

The actual dodge here is your attempt to NOT answer the question by providing verses that say what you believe. That is the deception.

Many people simply pop in posting with verses claiming it fits what they say and ignore or twist the ones that do not.
I've given verses that actually DO say what I believe.

Or, if not, please show the verses that don't actually SAY what I believe.
 
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