There is no irony here whatsoever. We should approach this passage as a disclosure of the Mystery of God and the Godhead.
Really? According to WHO or WHAT? You? I'll pass. I don't believe that there would be words offered if they were meant to be a MYSTERY. Why even MENTION something that is incapable of being understood. That would be utter foolishness. And I do not believe God to be a fool.
This is a part of the Mystery of God, that even though Christ is God, He calls the Father "my God", and this could be because God the Father is "the Head" of Christ (the authority over Christ). Also, Jesus is distinguished from the Father by the title "Lord", since the Father has given Christ total dominion over His Kingdom and His universe.
Makes absolutely NO sense that God the Son would be praying to God the Father. If He was GOD, He would have NO reason to pray to ANYONE or ANYTHING. If He were God Himself He wouldn't need to ASK for anything either.
Translation is not a factor, since you can go to an interlinear Greek New Testament and confirm that those are the words used.
We have NO direct copies of the original manuscripts so we can NOT be assured of anything involving translation. We are forced to rely upon the Holy Spirit to GUIDE us in conviction.
There would be many who would deny that Jesus is God (such as th Jehovah's Witnesses). Therefore it was necessary to identify Him as both God and Lord.
Have been and still are. And WHY do you suppose that ANYONE would deny Christ was/is God if there were not information that indicates such? Why would ANYONE deny Christ being God Himself if there were ANY evidence it were so? I have YET to meet those of ANY denomination that are MORE devoted to God and Christ than the JWs. NO, I am NOT a JW. But I have spoken to them and they have been to my door spreading the 'good news'.
You are completely mistaken here. I will give you just one example, but you should go back through all the New Testament Scriptures to confirm this. Jesus said publicly "Before Abraham was, I AM". That should have been capitalized in the NT, since I AM is the name of the LORD God Almighty in the OT.
Funny that YOU believe that YOU KNOW better than those that translated the Bible. If it was SUPPOSE to be capitalized why do you believe that it's NOT? It was translated by 'trinitarians'. If they believed that it was an indication of Christ claiming to be the SAME 'I Am', it is without doubt that they WOULD have capitalized it. Yet they didn't. But YOU believe they should have. Hmmmmm..............
And let me offer this: I am a FIRM believer that 'before Abraham', Christ existed. I am a firm believer that Christ was instrumental in the very 'creation' of life on this planet.
Already disproved. See 1 Timothy 3:16 (KJV). To the Jews SON OF GOD = GOD. Scripture tells us that by calling Himself the Son of God, He was deemed to be blaspheming, "because He made Himself equal to God".
Nope. Don't agree. The Jews FALSELY accused Christ of making Himself EQUAL with God. But Christ make it perfectly clear that He is NOT equal to God. He STATED that the Father, (God), is GREATER than the Son. He stated that His power CAME from God. That the words he offered were GIVEN Him by God. And He asked while suffering upon the cross, "My God, my God, why hath THOU forsaken ME?" A pure indication that not only was Christ NOT God, there was a TIME when Christ was 'in the flesh' that the very 'Spirit of God' abandoned Him. A time when He was ONLY the Son and the Son ALONE.
While on earth as the Messiah, Christ voluntarily set aside His Divine prerogatives, and placed Himself under the Father. Therefore as the GOD-MAN He prayed to the Father and sought to do the will of the Father. Yet He was fully God. That is the Mystery of Godliness. Please note carefully (1 Tim 3:16): And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God [ Greek THEOS] was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. This has been changed in all the other modern versions, but the majority of manuscripts stand behind this reading.
First, ALL indications offered throughout the ENTIRE Bible indicate that it is IMPOSSIBLE for the flesh to SEE God and LIVE. So it's ludicrous to believe that God can TAKE ON the 'flesh'. If it is impossible for the flesh to even SEE God and live, then the obviousness is that for God to enter the flesh of a man would surely destroy him.
But there is the Spirit of God that is certainly able to effect or affect men. And it was that SAME Spirit that lit upon Christ upon His Baptism. Well, at least that is what the Bible SAYS. If Christ TRULY existed in the flesh, then He could NOT have been GOD Himself. Certainly if the flesh cannot even LOOK upon God without being destroyed, it cannot CONTAIN God Himself.
So what does it mean that "God was manifest in the flesh"? It simply means that God the Word (God the Son, Christ) took human form through a supernatural conception in the womb of the virgin Mary. God became a Man, so that He would die as a Man for the sins of the whole world. God cannot die, but the Man Christ Jesus became the Lamb of God which took away the sin of the world.