Why Do We Not Use The Name Of God YHVH?

mmksparbud said:

Please give the chapter and verse where Jesus and the disciples used the name Yahweh.

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When Satan was tempting Yahusha, Yahusha quoted "Old Testament" scripture, which included Yahuah's name

For example

Matthew 4:4
“But He answering, said, “It has been written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of Yahuah(the lord)"

^this is from Deuteronomy 8:3
“And He humbled you, and let you suffer hunger, and fed you with manna which you did not know nor did your fathers know, to make you know that man does not live by bread alone, but by every Word that comes from the mouth of Yahuah(the lord)"

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Matthew 4:7“Yahusha said to him, “It has also been written, ‘You shall not try Yahuah(the lord) your Alahym(god).’ ””

^^^quoted from Deuteronomy 6:16
“Do not try Yahuah(the lord) your Elohim(god) as you tried Him in Massah.”
‭‭
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When the Pharasees asked him what was the greatest commandment, Yahusha quoted the this commandment, which had Yah's name in it, from Deuteronomy.

Matthew 22:36-38
Teacher, which is the great command in the Torah? And Yahusha said to him, "You shall love Yahuah(the lord) your Alahym(god) with all your heart, and with all your being, and with all your mind." "This is the first and greatest command."

^^^quoted from Deuteronomy 6:5
“And you shall love Yahuah(the lord) your Alahym(god) with all your heart, and with all your being, and with all your might.”

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Since Yahusha was quoting scripture that, when written, had His Father's name in it, we know that he did indeed use His Father's name when quoting scripture

There are too many seeing the whole NT was written with His name all over it. Still no verse in NT stating that we are to call Him by just one name only and nothing to refute the fact that Jesus taught His disciples to address God in prayer with "Our Father"--He has answered to many, countless names by those who have never even heard of Yahweh. They know His voice and have answered from every nation and tongue in this world down through the ages from the most totally primitive to the most educated.

"God also said to Moses, “Say this to the Israelites: Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever; this is how I am to be remembered in every generation." Exo 3:15

Holman's has 611 Scriptures with Yahweh.

justlookinla said:

Please give the chapter and verse where the disciples used the name Jesus.

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This question is not logical or reasonable. Of course the name "Jesus" does not occur in the original Greek but neither does any other name in the NT. Peter in Greek is actually Petros, Jerusalem is actually Ierusalem, Abe-ra-ham is actually Ahb-rah-ahm. That is called transliteration. The English name Jesus is the transliteration of the Greek Ἰησοῦς, pronounced Yaysoos. Ἰησοῦς, is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew ישׁוּע pronounced Yeshua. So how did Yeshua become Jesus? There is no "Sh" sound in written Greek. So the Hebrew "שׁ/shin", the "sh" sound in Yeshua. was replaced with the Greek σ/sigma, the middle "s" sound in Yaysoos. In Greek only feminine names end with α/alpha so the final ע/ayin became ς/final sigma. When Martin Luther translated the NT, he transliterated Ἰησοῦς as Jesus, which in German is pronounced Yaysoos. And of course English speakers pronounce Jesus as Jee-sus, not Yaysoos.

And English people translate and pronounce Yahweh as God. In Spanish it's Dios--in Latin it's Dei, or Deo, in modern German it's Gott, and, of course, Muslims insist it is Allah. There is no language, other than Hebrew, that uses the word Yahweh for God. And God has not heard, nor will He hear, anyone who doesn't use, what some people consider, the right word for Him --Yahweh?---. Are people seriously thinking that God has not heard 99.9 % of the population of the planet because they have not used the name Yahweh---a name that was given only to the Jews to begin with??

What did Moses call Him before he asked what to call Him?? If He knew that was His only true name, why did he have to ask
"and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? " These are the direct decedents of Adam and Eve, and Noah on down and they didn't know His name until Moses asked for His name?? It is the opinion of most that Moses wrote Genesis---so there is no written record of what His name was before this and Moses didn't know it??

http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Names_of_G-d/Sinaticus/sinaticus.html Test this link.

Look - all I said was 'that piece of halibut was good enough for Jehovah.'

Regards,
Shodan

Michael Collum said:

Breathe in: Vud

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"Vud?" really?

That letter is "vav."

Der Alter said:

For your information there were and are no vowels in Hebrew. ו The letter you are calling a "U" is in fact a consonant. The correct name for it is waw. It can sometimes have the "U" sound depending on which vowel sound precedes it. Much like our letter "W" Sometimes it can have an "oo" sound as in "two." Or an "aw" sound as in law. Or an "o" sound as in "tow."

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The letter is VAV. There is not now, nor has there ever been, a "w" sound in Hebrew. (with the exception of the manufactured Christian Seminary pronunciation system called "academic" which borrowed sounds from the Greek)

Yes, vav can have either a long O sound or a oo sound (as in moo) in addition to the V sound. I know of no instance where it has the aw sound. (perhaps again from that erroneous "academic" pronunciation system?)

DaveW-Ohev said:

The letter is VAV. There is not now, nor has there ever been, a "w" sound in Hebrew. (with the exception of the manufactured Christian Seminary pronunciation system called "academic" which borrowed sounds from the Greek)

Yes, vav can have either a long O sound or a oo sound (as in moo) in addition to the V sound. I know of no instance where it has the aw sound. (perhaps again from that erroneous "academic" pronunciation system?)

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I invite you to read this excerpt from an article in the Jewish Encyclopedia, which was compiled and edited by 35+ Jewish Rabbis and scholars.
.

You can get some scholars to say about anything.

My best friend in college - best man at my wedding and his son-in-law was best man at my son's wedding (has a PhD in linguistics) would take issue with it.

First off, before about 900 -1000 ad there was no "J" sound in any language anywhere on earth. That was when the Arabic speaking peoples developed it. So for these "scholars" to use "Jah" and "Jo" tells me they are using a much more modern (and therefore invalid) pronunciation system.

Again - as I said there has never been a "W" sound in Hebrew. The academic system was invented in the 1700s and 1800s and did not have access to the oldest on-going pronunciation system: that of the Yemenite Jews whose language was virtually unchanged since the first century. It has no "W" sound but it does pronounce the final hay. No one even knew they existed before about 1900. The Yemenis themselves did not know they were there back in the mountains until 1948.

DaveW-Ohev said:

You can get some scholars to say about anything.

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I don't appreciate your accusation! I didn't get "some scholars to say" anything I quoted from the 1906 Jewish Encylopedia, which as I said was compiled and edited by 35 Jewish Rabbis and scholars. That you have been misinformed and taught false history does not change the historical evidence I posted.

My best friend in college - best man at my wedding and his son-in-law was best man at my son's wedding (has a PhD in linguistics) would take issue with it.

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Irrelevant what your friend does or does not know or take issue with, it does not change the historical evidence I posted.

First off, before about 900 -1000 ad there was no "J" sound in any language anywhere on earth. That was when the Arabic speaking peoples developed it. So for these "scholars" to use "Jah" and "Jo" tells me they are using a much more modern (and therefore invalid) pronunciation system.

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Totally irrelevant to this topic! I have not been discussing how English speakers pronounce anything. Please review my previous post on how Jewish scholars determined that the divine Tetragrammaton was pronounced in ancient times.

Again - as I said there has never been a "W" sound in Hebrew. The academic system was invented in the 1700s and 1800s and did not have access to the oldest on-going pronunciation system: that of the Yemenite Jews whose language was virtually unchanged since the first century. It has no "W" sound but it does pronounce the final hay. No one even knew they existed before about 1900. The Yemenis themselves did not know they were there back in the mountains until 1948.

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If I know my geography, Yemen is a Muslim Arabic country a long way from Israel. Thank you for your unsupported opinion about the "W" sound in Hebrew. I have read that the "V" sound for the Hebrew letter ו is from the eastern European Ashkanazi influence.

Again- 1906. BEFORE those scholars knew of the Yemenites.

"My opinion" on the W sound is not unsupported.

Der Alter said:

I have read that the "V" sound for the Hebrew letter ו is from the eastern European Ashkanazi influence.

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What you have read is wrong. All Sephardic and Asian Jewish communities with no contact to the Ashkenazim Use a "V" sound exclusively with Vav.

DaveW-Ohev said:

Again- 1906. BEFORE those scholars knew of the Yemenites.

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Thank you once again for your unsupported and false opinion. I provide evidence you make unsupported assertions.

"My opinion" on the W sound is not unsupported.

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I have yet to see any credible, verifiable, historical evidence.

What you have read is wrong. All Sephardic and Asian Jewish communities with no contact to the Ashkenazim Use a "V" sound exclusively with Vav.

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Evidence?

Greetings justlookinla,

justlookinla said:

Why use 'God' or 'Lord' when those aren't names?

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It is appropriate when considering the OT Scriptures to recognise that the KJV “LORD” represents God’s Name “Yahweh” and that usually but not always the KJV “God” is the word “Elohim”. The next step is to understand the meaning of each word, by considering the derivation of each word, and also how these words are used in different contexts.

There have been some suggestions already in this thread. I prefer the explanation that the Yahweh Name is in the future tense. The word “Yahweh” is the third person singular “He will be”, but God’s Name when first stated is in the first person singular “I will be”.

This future tense is found in Tyndale’s translation:
Exodus 3:12-14 (Tyndale): 12 And he sayde: I wilbe with the. And this shalbe a token vnto the that I haue sent the: after that thou hast broughte the people out of Egipte, ye shall serue God vppon this mountayne. 13 Than sayde Moses vnto God: when I come vnto the childern of Israell and saye vnto them, the God of youre fathers hath sent me vnto you, ad they saye vnto me, what ys his name, what answere shall I geuethem? 14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.

The KJV renders the “Ehyeh” in v12 as “I will be”, and this should set the pattern and context to render “Ehyeh” in v14 as “I will be”, but they failed to follow Tyndale and rendered it as “I AM”.

The margins of the RV and RSV also give the future tense:
Exodus 3:14 (RV margin): Or I WILL BE Heb. Ehyeh
Exodus 3:14 (RSV margin): Or I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE

God’s Name Yahweh is future as it was associated with God’s purpose to deliver Israel out of Egypt as shown by the context of Exodus 3. God’s Name is also incorporated in the Name Jesus, as this represents the combination of two words “Yah” and “salvation” and thus the word “Jesus” represents “Yah’s salvation” or “He will be salvation”.
Matthew 1:21 (KJV): And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

The God of the OT, Yahweh, is revealed in the NT as God the Father, while Jesus is revealed as the Son of God. This title “God the Father” can be understood in all languages and the relationship bteween God the Father and Jesus the Son of God is a fulfillment of the Yahweh Name, of what God would become, or accomplish.

Kind regards
Trevor

In the previous Post, it was suggested that the Name Yahweh is better rendered by the future tense, and using this it introduces the concept that the Name of God is associated with some future purpose and activity.

This future tense and future activity was to be God acting to deliver Israel out of Egypt, so that Israel would become a people for His Name. They would be a living witness to the purpose of God, and a witness to the existence of God. The following passage strongly connects this future work in delivering Israel with the future aspect of the Name:
Exodus 6:1-8 (KJV): 1 Then the LORD said unto Moses, Now shalt thou see what I will do to Pharaoh: for with a strong hand shall he let them go, and with a strong hand shall he drive them out of his land. 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH (or Yahweh) was I not known to them. 4 And I have also established my covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land of their pilgrimage, wherein they were strangers. 5 And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel, whom the Egyptians keep in bondage; and I have remembered my covenant. 6 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: 7 And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which bringeth you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians. 8 And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning the which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it you for an heritage: I am the LORD.

When Israel was delivered out of Egypt the Name of God remains the same, but the particular activity has been accomplished:
Exodus 15:1-3 (KJV): 1 Then sang Moses and the children of Israel this song unto the LORD, and spake, saying, I will sing unto the LORD, for he hath triumphed gloriously: the horse and his rider hath he thrown into the sea. 2 The LORD is my strength and song, and he is become my salvation: he is my God, and I will prepare him an habitation; my father’s God, and I will exalt him. 3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name.
The future tense of God’s Name “He will be or become” has been accomplished, and Yahweh had become Israel’s salvation.

But this was not the ultimate completion of the Yahweh Name. God’s purpose with the earth was not complete with the salvation of Israel out of Egypt. God’s purpose was declared in the following, but sadly this was spoken at a time when the very generation that had been born through God’s deliverance failed.
Numbers 14:21 (KJV): But as truly as I live, all the earth shall be filled with the glory of the LORD.

The above raises the question of how and when will the earth be filled with the glory of God. One indication is found when the Psalmist uses the same words as Moses’ Song to speak of another deliverance:
Psalm 118:14-25 (KJV): 14 The LORD is my strength and song, and is become my salvation. 15 The voice of rejoicing and salvation is in the tabernacles of the righteous: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly. 16 The right hand of the LORD is exalted: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly. 17 I shall not die, but live, and declare the works of the LORD. 18 The LORD hath chastened me sore: but he hath not given me over unto death. 19 Open to me the gates of righteousness: I will go into them, and I will praise the LORD: 20 This gate of the LORD, into which the righteous shall enter. 21 I will praise thee: for thou hast heard me, and art become my salvation. 22 The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner. 23 This is the LORD’S doing; it is marvellous in our eyes. 24 This is the day which the LORD hath made; we will rejoice and be glad in it. 25 Save now, I beseech thee, O LORD: O LORD, I beseech thee, send now prosperity.

The above is quoted at length to show that there was to be a greater salvation in fulfillment of the Yahweh Name. It is evident from the context that this salvation is by means of the crucifixion, death and resurrection of the man of God’s right hand, the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

The greater deliverance is revealed even in the conception and birth of the child:
Matthew 1:20-21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

The meaning of the name Jesus is revealed: “for he shall save his people from their sins”. Was Jesus to be an independent Saviour? No, the name Jesus incorporates the Yahweh Name, Je-sous, Jo-shua, or Yah-oshea. He was to be Yahweh’s Salvation. Here then is the extension or fulfillment of the Yahweh Name, Yahweh was to be, to become. He was to “become salvation” Exodus 15:2, in and through Jesus, the Son of God. Yahweh is the Saviour, Jesus is the Saviour. In other words Yahweh, God the Father is the Saviour through His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. Yahweh has become salvation.

Salvation is now offered in the Name of Jesus Christ:
Acts 4:10-12 (KJV): 10 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. 11 This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. 12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Kind regards
Trevor

Jesus did make the name of God known, John 17:6 and other verses there, and even with also being that same God, the name, which is the name of the Father, the Son, and the Spirit, is the name of Yahweh.

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mmksparbud said:

Please give the chapter and verse where Jesus and the disciples used the name Yahweh.

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I was giving the Bible passage in that previous post from me to which there was that response, if it was just looked at, which it is not apparent that it was, it is seen there in John 17 that Jesus said to the heavenly Father, "I have manifested your name to them". And as was pointed out:

tturt said:

"God also said to Moses, “Say this to the Israelites: Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever; this is how I am to be remembered in every generation." Exodus 3:15

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As this said from Yahweh God makes requirement to remember God's name, which just happens with speaking of God with the name, and with any reference to God requiring respect anyway, though it was disobeyed already by Jews under wrong traditions from their leaders by the time Jesus came to be among people, why would you think Jesus did not observe that, especially with Jesus, who was not conforming to traditions of the elders that were contrary to what God said, then saying he made God's name known among them? It was the name of his Father, it is also shared with him and God's Spirit, as it is shown in Matthew 28:19-20, they have the one name together, as one being, as God is one being.

Though it was said earlier that the name of Yahweh is only that of one person, which isn't shown, it is instead rather the name of God from what is shown in all the Bible, and with the name there about 6990 times in the original writings. I don't make any issue of others speaking of Yahweh with using some difference in pronunciation or spelling, those who do use some such difference shouldn't make such issue over the differences either. We are obedient with remembering the name, at least, with using it in proper reference at times, certainly with respect as properly it would be toward Yahweh God always. Others not doing that are not obedient in that, yet, but promoting such speaking with God's name can be done.

FredVB said:

I was giving the Bible passage in that previous post from me to which there was that response, if it was just looked at, which it is not apparent that it was, it is seen there in John 17 that Jesus said to the heavenly Father, "I have manifested your name to them". And as was pointed out

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(Joh 17:6) I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.


Jn_1:2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us

1Jn_3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.

1Jn_3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

1Jn_4:9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.

: to make evident or certain by showing or displaying
— man·i·fest·er noun
show, manifest, evidence, evince, demonstrate mean to reveal outwardly or make apparent. show is the general term but sometimes implies that what is revealed must be gained by inference from acts, looks, or words <careful not to show his true feelings>. manifest implies a plainer, more immediate revelation <manifested musical ability at an early age>. evidence suggests serving as proof of the actuality or existence of something <a commitment evidenced by years of loyal service>. evince implies a showing by outward marks or signs <evinced not the slightest fear>. demonstrate implies showing by action or by display of feeling <demonstrated their approval by loud applause>.

The one verse you posted means that Jesus "showed"----as with the other verses that uses that word. It does not mean that Jesus was speaking the actual name to them. It means He showed them who God is through Himself.