1. Thank you twin1954.
2. In Post #99, JM stated:
In fact (from the MKJV):
v22 … Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by powerful works, and wonders and miracles, which God did through Him in your midst ...
v23 this One given [to you] by the before-determined counsel and foreknowledge of God …
v24 whom God raised up ...
v32 God raised up this Jesus, of which we all are witnesses.
v33 Therefore being exalted to the right of God ...
v34 … The LORD said to my Lord, Sit at My right [hand]
v36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God made this same Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Was not Peter a Jew, speaking here to Jews, on the occasion of an important Jewish festival, using a definition (God) that had been immutable throughout their history?
Now maybe in the light of later Church Councils (325 – when the Binity was defined, and 381 – when the Trinity was defined), we may understand that Peter and his hearers had an immature perception of the nature of God. But should not the Inspired Word of God be quoted and paraphrased as it was written? Did God not have a purpose in having it recorded the way He did?
And with respect to v33 “... and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit ...”, might it be pertinent to investigate whether or not the term “the Father” had its own specific meaning to Peter and his hearers? (As opposed to a definition that was developed later?)
Would it be a stumbling block of some kind to learn that as God revealed Himself to Israel in the Old Testament writings, the terms “God” and “the Father” were synonymous? i.e. In the apostle Peter's mind, God was the Father, and the Father was God. God = the Father, and the Father = God.
If a review of the God's revelation to Israel shows that that is the case, and that disclosure generates feelings of discomfort, then may not something be amiss somewhere?
And what light does it throw on Jesus' use of the term “the Father”?
2. In Post #99, JM stated:
Well, the inspired Scripture actually says “at the right hand of God”.In Acts 2 we are told is ruling and reigning now from at the right hand of the Father;
In fact (from the MKJV):
v22 … Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by powerful works, and wonders and miracles, which God did through Him in your midst ...
v23 this One given [to you] by the before-determined counsel and foreknowledge of God …
v24 whom God raised up ...
v32 God raised up this Jesus, of which we all are witnesses.
v33 Therefore being exalted to the right of God ...
v34 … The LORD said to my Lord, Sit at My right [hand]
v36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God made this same Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Was not Peter a Jew, speaking here to Jews, on the occasion of an important Jewish festival, using a definition (God) that had been immutable throughout their history?
Now maybe in the light of later Church Councils (325 – when the Binity was defined, and 381 – when the Trinity was defined), we may understand that Peter and his hearers had an immature perception of the nature of God. But should not the Inspired Word of God be quoted and paraphrased as it was written? Did God not have a purpose in having it recorded the way He did?
And with respect to v33 “... and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit ...”, might it be pertinent to investigate whether or not the term “the Father” had its own specific meaning to Peter and his hearers? (As opposed to a definition that was developed later?)
Would it be a stumbling block of some kind to learn that as God revealed Himself to Israel in the Old Testament writings, the terms “God” and “the Father” were synonymous? i.e. In the apostle Peter's mind, God was the Father, and the Father was God. God = the Father, and the Father = God.
If a review of the God's revelation to Israel shows that that is the case, and that disclosure generates feelings of discomfort, then may not something be amiss somewhere?
And what light does it throw on Jesus' use of the term “the Father”?
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