So Acts 1 and Acts 11 are two different events (Jewish disciples vs Gentile household).
Do you see this baptism with the Holy Spirit as:
- one time event at Pentecost?
- two time event (one for Jews in Acts 1 and one for Gentiles in Acts 11)?
- one time per believer?
- multiple times per believer?
I believe that St. Luke (the traditional author of the Acts of the Apostles) intends to give a thesis when he writes Jesus saying "You will be My witnesses beginning in Jerusalem ... unto the ends of the earth." The narrative of the Acts follows that structure and has that unique Pentecost moment as a kind of stepping stone along the way.
It begins on Pentecost in Jerusalem, which empowers the apostles to go out and
apostle, to preach the word, and we see them preaching throughout Judea. Next we read about it moving into Samaria, with the Samaritans receiving the Gospel, being baptized, and then there is an outpouring of the Spirit. And finally it happens in the household of Cornelius, with Gentiles--the nations. The "baptism with the Holy Spirit" is then a uniquely historical act of God demonstrating His call and acceptance beginning with Jews in Jerusalem, the Samaritans (thus restoring peace between Jews and Samaritans) and finally with the Gentiles.
These are specific, uniquely historical moments demonstrating the outpouring of the Spirit on "all flesh". There is no indication in Scripture that it is to happen ever again, or that it should happen to any given individual beyond those who, in those moments, were there. As such the "baptism with the Holy Spirit" is an historical event (or events).
Also where does the chrism fit into this? Somewhere I read that originally a bishop would lay hands on the person after baptism to anoint with the Holy Spirit, but then they switched to chrism oil to allow the priest to baptize without a bishop. (The first time I heard of chrism was at my Eastern Orthodox baptism. I don't remember it at my Episcopal confirmation, and I also don't remember it at my Four Square church baptism later. Chrism seemed a bit weird, and that is why I'm curious.)
Chrismation, laying on of hands and anointing with oil, is still a normative part of what is called Christian Initiation. In the West Chrismation evolved to become Confirmation, in Protestant churches the use of chrism oil may or may not be used in Confirmation, but is used as part of Baptism--and thus Chrismation remains standard baptismal practice. The purpose of Chrismation, historically, is the seal of the Holy Spirit--and its tie to Baptism has to do with Acts 2:38, "Repent and be baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, all of you, for the forgiveness of your sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." Other examples would be in Acts 19 where St. Paul comes across some followers (presumably of John the Baptist) and they say they only knew John's baptism, and after Paul explains that John's baptism was in preparation of the coming Messiah, Jesus, they receive Christian baptism and the laying on of hands.
As such laying on of hands/anointing with oil--chrismation--has historically been an essential element of Christian baptism. In the West, due to liturgical changes, chrismation could be delayed and it eventually become Confirmation. In the Reformation while Confirmation was not accepted by the Protestant churches as a Sacrament in its own right, it was retained as a means of good order; but what has been done is the laying on of hands/anointing with oil being done as part of the baptismal rite. As such Baptism and Chrismation are, together, regarded as Baptism and happen at the same time.
For example as soon as the child is baptized in the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit chrism is applied to the child's forehead along with the laying on of hands. That would be standard practice, at least in my church.
Scouring Youtube, here's an example of a pretty standard baptism in a Lutheran church. Fast forward to the five minute mark.
Baptism, laying on of hands, anointing with chrism oil.
-CryptoLutheran