Catherineanne
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- Sep 1, 2004
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I really don't think you are facing the question. Let me try again...........
The writer of Romans was writing ABOUT scripture (& its insufficiency).
i.e. HE (Paul) was not actually "writing scripture" (to his awareness at least)
It is an inescapable historical fact that it was councils of Catholic bishops that raised this letter to "inspired status" by adding it to the canon of scripture that Paul knew & refers to. (Paul knew nothing of this)
The whole Church accepted this Canon of Scripture (now known as "The Bible") on the apostolic authority of these councils of bishops (which sent their conclusions to the pope for approval).
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So,..
(1)Apart from the fact that SS is not in scripture (failing its own requirement),
(2)And it is contradicted in scripture. (Citations above)
(3)"Scripture" (as which scriptures?) is not defined within scripture.
It has to be defined by an external authority (so no SOLA scripture).
This external authority was the Catholic Bishops;
Over a millenium later Luther deselected some (on what authority I know not).
Some would like to add others (eg Gnostics or Mormons)
This is correct.
The Scripture that Paul refers to is the Torah; what we would regard as the Old Testament, although it may not have been exactly as we know it because the Torah was not quite fixed at that point either.
Paul would expect his letters to be read and valued. He would not expect them to eventually have equal status with Isaiah and the Psalms.
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