You say that is not what Jesus Said. Well, then what DID Jesus say? In every scripture I found in the Bible where Jesus talks about divorce He says sexual immorality. How can you say "more than likely" he used a certain word without offering up scripture from the Bible, or other accepted source, to show what He 'could have' said.
The Bible has been around for over a millennial and has plenty enough time, and scrutiny, for any erroneously translated words to have been corrected by now.
Matthew 19:8-9 KJV
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your
wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you"and I say unto you., Whosoever shall put away his
wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery : and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery .
The scripture above proves that Jesus could, and did, contradict the Law of Moses by correcting it and explaining His correction by stating "and I say unto you," which means that what He was saying was all that was needed to know.
Please don't think I'm picking on anybody, but we have a lot of questionable doctrines floating around today by well meaning people that are based on the premise that something else was 'meant' in the Bible because somebody couldn't possibly have said/done something that they did say/do.
I'm open to learning everything I can from the Bible that is of sound doctrine from anybody, but I'd like it to be presented in the light of authoritative documentation.
Blessings,
Alan