Which part of why I said it's not didn't you comprehend? The desolation lasts until the consummation. Or did
that slip your mind when you posted this response?
According to you Moses history goes up to the return of from Babylon.
1. The first exile is to a single nation -- not many as you assert:
36 “The LORD will bring you and your king whom you set over you to a nation that neither you nor your fathers have known.
2. After this first exile Israel is to remain in a state of subjection until it is destroyed:
48 therefore you shall serve your enemies whom the LORD will send against you, in hunger and thirst, in nakedness, and lacking everything. And he will put a yoke of iron on your neck until he has destroyed you.
3. The second exile:
64 “And the LORD will scatter you among all peoples, from one end of the earth to the other, and there ...
So your assertion doesn't match what scripture says or history. At all.
4. You say the Babylonian return is the return Moses describes, but here is what Moses says of that return:
a. 3 then the LORD your God will restore your fortunes
In fact, Israel's fortunes were not restored. They were poor, and remained a tribute province to conquering empires (part of the curse)
b. 5 And the LORD your God will bring you into the land that your fathers possessed, that you may possess it.
In fact, Israel did not possess the land any more than it did during the exile -- it was a province of Persia/Greece/Rome.
c. 7 And the LORD your God will put all these curses on your foes and enemies who persecuted you.
In fact, Israel's enemies remained victorious, and Israel subject and persecuted until it was destroyed.
Thus you assert Moses curse fits the Babyloninan exile, and his "return" the Babylonian return, but neither assertion matches actual history. You simply ignore the details Moses provides and how they match history.
I am not totally sure how you are trying to match Daniel's "end" ("consummation") with Moses story, but it appears you are attempting to assign it to the end of his "return" -- which for you is the Babylonian return. Daniel's "end" (see 7, 8, 9 & 10-12) terminates with the start of the millennium, so that looks totally insane. For Daniel, "the end" means the "end of God's indignation" and end to foreign powers trampling Jerusalem and the land, followed by the millennium's start. How that fits with an Israel that starts out in a state of subjection and then is totally destroyed -- well, it's anybody's guess.
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