But see that would go against the bible's instruction: Virginity is one of the most important things about a person, yet being forced to compromise one's daughters in such a way contradicts it's importance. So we have a contradiction, or Lot was making a really stupid decision
I know I stated this before but let me point this out again. The law that stated not to prostitute their women, came after all the instances we are speaking about here in Lot's case. As we study we need to keep this truth in the back of our minds.
I can point to several instances where women freely offered themselves to those who they were not betrothed to, as well as their husbands to other women.
Sarah told Abraham to take Hagar to wife, and Abraham agreed. (Genesis 16)
Lot's daughters (Genesis 19) had intercourse with thier father to continue his seed.
Issac that I know of was the only one to have had only one wife.
Jacob when seeking a wife ended up working for his father in law Laban for the hand of Rachel but ended up with Leah as his first wife, then Rachel. Both of whom gave thier servants as wives to Jacob and thus we have where all 12 tribes of Isreal stem from. (Genesis 29-30)
Let us look at Dinah. The bible doesn't state that she resisted, but what it does say is that her brothers exhonerating her virginity by killing all the men was wrong. (Genesis 34)
Judah promises Tamar children through his offspring but doesn't uphold his promise. Tamar takes matters into her own hand. (Genesis 38) And what is it that Judah confesses after he discovers it all? But that he was in the wrong in what he did and Tamar was more righteous than him.
Reuben has intercourse with his fathers concubine, but his father does not disown him as his flesh and blood, the only thing he did was in his blessing to his sons he brought a curse there (Genesis 49).
My point is that the Law of Moses was handed down after everything we are speaking of had happened. If you read Leviticus 18 you will find where now after establishing the Isrealites GOD set to law, who the men were not to have sexual relationships with.
Today we call this marraige and it requires a man incited certificate for it to happen. Now I am not saying this is wrong, I am just saying that back then there were no marraige certificates. We find the truth about marraige as Paul writes in this epistle:
1 Corinthians 6:16 Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, "The two will become one flesh."
It is this act of Sexual relations that makes a man one flesh with a woman and vice a versa. This is why we now uphold no premarital sex. No where in the law does it say that a man shall have only one wife, except for the Priests (Leviticus 21) and again in reference to an Overseer of the flock in Paul's epistle (1 Timothy 3:2).
The act of infidelity is not as an extreem act as rejecting GOD and HIS messangers. One act is forgivable, where as the other might not be. In other words if we do not put GOD before our own selves and others, there will be punishments incurred. Where as if we have an act of indescretion we can go to HIM for forgiveness. However, if we refuse to hear what HIS Spirit is telling us and continue in sin, we might very well suffer consequence:
Hebrews 12:25 See to it that you do not refuse him who speaks. If they did not escape when they refused him who warned them on earth, how much less will we,
if we turn away from him who warns us from heaven?
Matthew 12:23 Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.
GOD BLESS!